Friday, April 20, 2012
Which Language Is Best for My Child? अध्यन के दौरान कौनसी भाषा होनी चाहिए , मेरे बच्चे की पढाई के लिए कौनसी भाषा श्रेष्ठ है ?
The most favorite language to learn is mother language ,so it is better to make your child learn fast in mother language ,The new emergent concept now a days is in favor of study in your mother language ,by the teacher who know mother language of your kid
Many parents approach their children's Second language learning with a very specific reason and goal in mind. For these families, selecting a second language may be a clear choice.
They plan on taking trips abroad and want their child to be able to appreciate their destination in a way far beyond just soaking up the sights.
Or they hope their child will pick up their new language and use it to communicate with a relative who might feel most comfortable in a language other than Hindi (mother language).That may be English as a second language .
For many of us, however, the answer isn't quite as obvious. Selecting a language might seem a lot like picking classes in high school or college
अध्यन के दौरान कौनसी भाषा होनी चाहिए ,
मेरे बच्चे की पढाई के लिए कौनसी भाषा श्रेष्ठ है ?
सबसे अधिक उचित भाषा मत्री भाषा होती है ,बच्चा दस माह की भाषा उम्र से सीखना शुरू करता है ,सबसे पहली गुरु माँ(जन्म दात्री या पालन पोषण करने बाली यशोदा ) होती है , बही हमें शुरुआती दिनों की भाषा का बोध कराती है ,जो भाषा माँ बोलती है वही भाषा हमारे जीवन की सबसे अधिक सिखाने बाली भाषा बन जाती है ,अब नए शोध परिणामों से यह बात सामने आयी है ,की मातृभाषा ही सीखने की सर्वोत्तम भाषा मानी जाती है. इसलिए हमें मातृभाषा में अंग्रेजी को समझा सकने बाले अध्यापकों से ही बच्चो की पढाई शुरुआती पढाई करवानी चाहिए जो की बच्चे को समझ सकें और समझा सकें
क्या विकल्प के रूप में दूसरी भाषा का ज्ञान होना चाहिए ?
आधुनिक भूमंडलीकरण के युग में जहाँ कंप्यूटर की सबसे उपयुक्त भाषा के रूप में अंग्रेजी को मान्यता मिल रही है ,वहीं पूरी दुनिया के लोग चाहे वह रसियन यो या जर्मन ,चीनी हो या अफ्रीकन ,सभी अंग्रेजीकरण की और आकर्षित हुए हैं .सभी देश भूमंडल में व्यापार काम काज और अध्ययन तथा भ्रमण के लिए अंग्रेजी भाषा का इस्तेमाल कर रहे हैं ,समस्त विश्व में अंग्रेजी माध्यम के विश्वविद्यालय खोल कर विदेशी छात्रों को आकर्षित किया जा रहा है ,यानि अध्ययन और कम्यूटर के लिए सर्वमान्य भाषाओँ में अंग्रेजी अपना स्थान बना रही है
Friday, September 30, 2011
काल्पनिक डर, कितना खतरनाक है है ?
काल्पनिक डर कोई अन्य काल्पनिक इमोसंस (emotions ) की तरह नहीं है ,डर की तो कल्पना भी, दूसरी इमोसंस की वास्तविकता से कई गुना भयावह है
,मौत और अनिश्चितता से डरा कर ,बीमा कम्पनियों और धर्मान्धता का कारोबार बखूबी चलता है ,
अगर स्वर्ग में धार्मिकों को लालच की बात न की जाये ,और अगर बीमा कंपनी म्रत्यु के बाद तीन गुना प्रीमियम परिजनों को अदा करने का बादा न करें तो सोचो बीमा कंपनी और धार्मिकता कैसे चले ,अगर बीमार को मृत्यु का डर ना हो तो अस्पताल कैसे चलें ,
दूसरे मुल्क(दुश्मन देश ) ,दूसरे धर्म द्वारा, खुद के मुल्क ,या खुद के धर्म,जाती , पार्टी ,संविधान ,पर हमला बता कर, हर देश देश वासियों या एक धर्म,जाती ,पार्टी ,संविधान पर लोगों को खतरे से डराते है ,और अपने देश धर्म, जाती ,पार्टी ,और संविधान पर मर मरने मिटने के लिए सबको एकजुट कर लेते है ,
वास्तविकता में यह काल्पनिक डर भी ,बहुत बड़ा फेक्टर है, जो देश ,धर्म ,बीमा कंपनी, जाती ,पार्टी ,और संविधान और अस्पताल को चलाता है, ,
डर सभी को लगता है ,डर से आगे जीत है ,
इन व्क्यंशों में छुपा है डर से मुकाबला कर दो चार हाथ कर लेने की कुब्बत ,वह गुर्जरों में कूट कूट कर भरी है ,
गुर्जरों ने डरना तो सीखा ही नहीं ,चाहे वो अरब आक्रान्ता रहे हों या अंग्रेज सबसे खूब लोहा लिया ,हार नहीं मानी रार खूब ठानी ,डर का सामना होने पर जहां अच्छे अच्छे योद्धाओं की घिग्घी बंध जाती है वहां गुर्जर डंटे रहते है ,यह सब डर से मुकाबले की ट्रेनिंग हमारे वातावरण में मौजूदऔर अंदरूनी ताकत हमारे खून और जींस मैं मौजूद है
आइये हम जाने डर से मुकाबले के लिए क्या परिस्थितियां जरूरी हैं .,
डर हर व्यक्ति तो क्या हर जीव को सताता है ,हम डर से जीवन की समस्त जीवन पद्धति को सीखते हैं ,डर और इच्छा रहित कोई जीव या इंसान नहीं ,सिर्फ निर्जीव वस्तुएं ,डर और इच्छा रहित हो सकती हैं
,जब हमारे अन्दर जीवन जीने की इच्छा मौजूद रहती है तो हम डर से बचना सीखते हैं ,डर पर काबू पाना सीखते हैं
पेन्सिल्वेनिया यूनीवर्सिटी के वैज्ञानिक साईकोलोजिस्ट, मार्टिन सेल्डिगमेन, ने अपने शोध कार्यों में पाया कि डर पर काबू पाना सीखने के लिए हमारी जीवन जीने की आकांक्षा का होना बहुत जरुरी है ,हम जीवन जीने के लिए तभी तक संघर्ष करते हैं जब हमें जीवन जीने की आशा बची होती है
,यह साबित करने के लिए की हर इंसान पर डर से मुकाबला करने के लिए ट्रेनिंग का बिशेष महत्व होता है मार्टिन महोदय ने कुत्तों के ऊपर एक अद्भुत प्रयोग किया ,उसने कुत्तो के two A,B,समूह बनाए
समूह A के कुत्तों को एक पिंजरे में बंद कर पट्टे से बांध दिया गया ,फिर उन्हें नियंत्रित मात्र में कुछ सेकेंड्स के लिए पिंजरे के फर्श में बिछी रोड्स से विद्युत करंट लगाया गया ,मार्टिन महोदय ने देखा की कुत्तों को भागने या उछलने की कोई स्वतंत्रता नहीं थी अतः ग्रुप अ के कुत्तों ने भाग्य को ही अपनी नियति मान लिया और करंट लगाने को चुप चाप लेटकर सहन करते रहे ,
अब उन्होंने दूसरा ग्रुप B का परीक्षण करते समय कुत्तों को पिंजरे में फ्री छोड़ दिया ,और उतनी ही मात्र में पिंजरे के फर्श में बिछी रोड्स से विद्युत करंट लगाया गया ,अब मार्टिन ने देखा की यह कुत्ते करंट लगाने पर पहाडी बकरी की तरह करंट प्रवाह होने उछलने लगे और अपना बचाव सीख गए
,इस ट्रेनिंग के बाद जब मुख्य प्रयोग शुरू किया गया तो पाया गया ,की जिन कुत्तों को पट्टे से बाँध कर करंट प्रवाह से आदी बना दिया गया था ,पिजरे में बिना पट्टा बंधे खुला छोड़ने पर भी न तो करंट से बचने के लिए उछलने की प्रक्रिया दुहराई ना ही उस खिड़की से बच कर भागने की कोशिश की जो की उस दीवार में खुली छोड़ दी थी ,लेकिन ग्रुप बी के कुत्ते पहले तो जlन बचने के लिए उछले बाद में खुली खिड़की से कूद कर भाग गए ,
यहाँ मार्टिन महोदय ने निष्कर्ष निकाला जिन कुत्तों को डर के साथ कम्प्रोमाईज कर खुद को डर से साथ अडजस्ट करना सीख लिया था उन्होंने जीवन से मोह छोड़ कर भाग्य के भरोसे डिप्रेसन में जीना सीख लिया था,लेकिन दूसरे ग्रुप ने अपनी जान बचाने का हर संभव उपाय करना सीख लिया था
,http://www.braincrave.com/
Thursday, September 29, 2011
डराने के लिए ,डर का कारोबार.
डराने के लिए ,डर का कारोबार. |
The oldest and strongest emotion of mankind is fear." --- H.P. Lovecraft . क्या डरना जरूरी है ??. डर का हमारे आधुनिक जीवन में क्या महत्व है ? आधुनिक सोच यही कहती है नियंत्रित डर से हम अपने मस्तिष्क को खतरों से लड़ने की ट्रेनिंग दे सकते हैं .हम अपने परिवार को स्पेसियली छोटे बच्चों को भी आज डरावनी फिल्मों को देखने की इजाजत आराम से दे रहे हैं . क्या इसमें कोई खतरा तो नहीं ??? आज हमारे लिए डर पर काबू पाना बहुत जरूरी हो गया है , बच्चा पढाई के डर से पीड़ित है , किशोर प्रेम संबंधों की असफलता ,या न होने की आशंका से पीड़ित है , पिता कारोबार और नौकरी के डर से पीड़ित है , तो ग्रहिणी परिवार की समस्यायों से डरती है , ब्रद्ध मृत्यु के डर से व्याकुल हैं ,यानी डर सबको सताता है , तो फिर डर से बचा कैसे जाये ?? सिर्फ नियंत्रित स्थितियों में ट्रेनिंग द्वारा डर पर काबू पाना सीख सकते हैं,कहते हैं कि डर के आगे जीत है चाहे वो अड्वेंचर गेम हों या फ़िल्में ,कहानी या वार्तालाप,कॉमिक या सीरियल .कुछ भी एसा हो जो काल्पनिक डर पैदा कर धड़कन बढ़ा दे ,आज का फिल्म उद्योग चाहे होलीबुड,हो या बौलीबुड .सभी जगह डर का कारोबार चल रहा है ,बिना डर को शामिल किये कोई फिल्म बनाना असंभव सा लगता है , एसा क्यों है ??? आधुनिक काल के शोधकर्ताओं ने पाया है कि डर सबसे अधिक ताकतबर भावना है ,आज लोग डराने के लिए पैसे खर्च कर रहे हैं ,अगर इंसान के सामने से डर ख़त्म हो जाये तो जीवन नीरस सा लगता है ,हम डर के साए में रहकर जितना तेजी और सटीकता से अपने कार्य को अंजाम देते है ,उतना किसी अन्य भावना के द्वारा नहीं ,डर के दौरान हम लालच ,और सेक्सुअल अट्रेकसन, से भी अधिक तेजी काम को अंजाम देते हैं , एसा क्यों ? हमारे शोधकर्ता बताते हैं ,कि जब जीवन खतरे में होता हैं तो हमारे शरीर के अन्दर बहुत तेजी से एड्रेनेलिन नामक हारमोन का श्रवण (secretion ) होता है ,जो कार्य को तेजी फुर्ती और दुरुस्ती से संपन्न करवाता है ,हमारा मस्तिस्क ,और पूरा शरीर एक मशीन की तरह बिना थके अवश्यक महत्वपूर्ण क्रियाओं को अंजाम देता है , यही कारण है कि आज होरर/डरावनी फिल्मों की मांग तेजी से बढ़ती जा रही है ,आज अड्वेंचर खेलों का प्रचलन बढ़ रहा है ,आज जांवाजी एक जूनून सा बन गया है,डर के दौरान एक शर्त है ,आपको खुद के ऊपर डर को काबू नहीं पाने देना है .अगर डर ने आपके ऊपर काबू पा लिया तो ,आप कुछ भी नहीं कर सकते , इसलिए सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है डर पर काबू पाना , यही कारण है ,कि हमें डर पर काबू पाने के लिए खुद को बार बार डरने की ट्रेनिंग देनी पड़ती है ,क्योंकि डर के आगे जीत है .किसी ज़माने में हम बच्चों को डरावनी मूवी देखने की इजाजत नहीं देते |
थे |
क्योंकि पुराने ज़माने की फ़िल्में भूत प्रेत से डराने की कोशिस करतीं थीं ,और उसका दुष्परिणाम होता था,रात में बच्चों का सपने में डर जाना ,या सदैव के लिए भूत से डरपोक बन जाना लेकिन आज की फिल्मों में फिल्म देखने के बाद सदैव के लिए डरपोक बन जाने का खतरा बिलकुल नहीं है ,क्योंकि आज की फ़िल्में पूरी तरह काल्पनिक हैं ,हम अपने बच्चों और स्वयं को इस काल्पनिक डर से सपने में तो डर सकते हैं ,लेकिन स्थायी रूप से डरने के लिए डरने का वास्तविक कारण काल्पनिक होने के कारण ,हम अपने बच्चों को और स्वयं को डर के प्रति आश्वश्त कर सकते है , हम आज के युवा को हम हिंसा रहित साफ़ सुथरी फिल्मों से संतुष्ट नहीं कर सकते ,यद्यपि पुरानी फिल्मों में भी खलनायकों की परम्परा रही है लेकिन उनमें नायक प्रधान फ़िल्में अधिक सफल होतीं थीं ,लेकिन आज का दौर खलनायक प्रधान फिल्मों की और बढ़ रहा है ,डर पर आधारित फिल्मों का नया दौर सा चल पड़ा है |
सबसे सफल कारोबार करने बाली होलीबुड की 12 फिल्मों में से 9 फ़िल्में (75 % ) काल्पनिक डर पर आधारित हैं , |
,आज का डर भूत प्रेतों से नहीं नहीं , नई वैज्ञानिक खोजों पर आधारित , डायनोसोर्स(जुरासिक पार्क ) , गोडजिला , एलियंस, स्टार वार्स |
,हेरी पोटर में जादुई खलनायक १ to 6, लोर्ड ऑफ़ दा रिंग्स 1to 3 . दा ममी, |
टाइटेनिक |
ममी |
रिटर्न्स |
,एक्सोर्सिस्ट. ,जोड़ीअक, सिक्स्थ सेन्स , इंटरव्यू विथ वेम्पायर, ,हेलोबीन, हौन्टिंग मूवीज से डराया जा रहा है .इसे देखने के लिए हम उतावले हैं ,वयस्क तो वयस्क आज डरने के लिए बच्चे भी उतावले हैं ,लेकिन ध्यान रहे ,मूवी के बाद बच्चों को वास्तविकता से अवगत करा दें ,यह सब काल्पनिक है . |
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Saturday, November 10, 2007
Examination for the Civil Services conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the peoples who are interested in becoming an IAS officer
For determined person, it is not so tough, now opportunity for average student who had secured at least 1st division in graduation has increased. Because most of creamy layer intelligent students get separated after senior higher secondary examination, for the Medical and Engineering examination .and fewer students who are predetermined and confident has better economic support and guidance from family not in hurry to get the employment, wait for civil services until completion of graduate degree. once there was a trend when most of IITians Engineers were also aspirant to Civil services now due to boom in IT, Computer technology and entrance of multinational companies the had left this choice and now comparatively less students are appearing in civil service examination.
Becoming an IAS officer is a very good career option If you become an IAS officer, you become part of the Indian Administrative Service. You will be part of the Govt. You can work from “the inside” and change “the system”. , IAS is for you, if you determine to become an IAS officer, there is a lot more power and control you have so that you can be part of Emerging
Basically getting into the IAS is not that easy, there is a very competitive “one year long” exam! To get into the IAS, you probably will have to try more than once before you succeed. And even if you clear the exam, then you have to get a very good score to qualify for the IAS,
Here I am giving you the web sites which may be helpful to you for your orientation
, 1.http://www.civilserviceindia.com
2.http://www.kadiravan.com
3.http://www.sriramsias.com
4http://www.iasgurukul.org
5.http://www.sriramsias.com/sriramsiastea … dvice.html.
6.http://nvkishore.blogspot.com/search/la … 20services
6. indiahowto.com
IAS CIVIL EXAMINATION Exam Details:
All
1. Preliminary Examination: It is of objective type, which is a qualifying examination for the selection of candidates for Main Examination (Remarks : More details on the UPSC web site.)
2. Main Examination: It consists of written examination and interview for the selection of candidates for the various services and posts.
The Preliminary Examination is held in May/June and the Main Examination in October/November.
One must begin preparations of the main exam along with preliminary exam. This is because there is little time for the Main exam if one waits for the results of the Preliminaries.
. How many times are you allowed to give the exam?
*If you belong to the “Open Category” you can give the exam 4 times maximum!
*If you belong to the “OBC” you can give the exam 7 times.
*If you belong to the “SC/ST” you can give the exam as many times as you want. There is no restriction on the number of times!
What is eligibility, and age limit?
Minimum academic qualifications prescribed
A Graduate (BA, BCom, BSc or Higher) degree from a recognized university or equivalent
Age Limits
21-30 years as on 1.8.2008 for next session, (i.e. the session on which year you are appearing)
Remarks
Only such of the candidates as are declared qualified on the results of Preliminary Examination are eligible to take the Main Examination
If a person appears in the Preliminary Exam or even appears in one paper, it is counted as an attempt.
Scheme of CS (Preliminary) Examination
The Preliminary Examination consists of two papers of objective type (multiple-choice questions) carrying a maximum of 450 marks.
The Question Papers (Test Booklets) are set in English & Hindi,
Paper - I | General Studies | 150 Marks |
Paper - II | One of the optional subjects to be selected from the prescribed optional subjects | 300 Marks |
List of Optional Subjects CS (Preliminary) - Total 23
Agriculture | Mathematics |
Animal Husbandry & Vet nary Science | Mechanical Engineering |
Botany | Medical Science |
Chemistry | Philosophy |
Civil Engineering | Physics |
Commerce | Political Science |
Economics | Psychology |
Electrical Engineering | Public Administration |
Geography | Sociology |
Geology | Statistics |
Indian History | Zoology |
Law | |
Where is the exam conducted?
The following cities have exam centers:
1.Agartala2.Gangtok3.Panaji(Goa)5.Ahmedabad6.Hyderabad7.Patna8.Aizawl9.Imphal10.Pondicherry11.Aligarh12.Itanagar13.PortBlair14.Allahabad16.Jaipur17.Raipur18.Aurangabad19.Jammu20.Ranchi21.Bangalore22.Jodhpur23.Sambalpur24.Bareilly25.Jorhat26.Shillong27.Bhopal28.Kochi29.Shimla30.Chandigarh31.Kohima32.Srinagar33.Chennai34.Kolkata35Thiruvananthapuram36.Cuttack37.Lucknow38.Tirupati39.Dehradun40.Madurai41.Udaipur42.Delhi43.Mumbai44.Vishakhapatnam45.Dharwar46Nagpur47.Dispur
What is the Course of Preliminary Examination?
It will consist of two papers of Objective type (multiple choice questions) and carry a maximum of 450. The question papers are set in Hindi as well as in English. Preliminary Examination is meant to serve as a screening test only;
The marks obtained by the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination will not be counted for determining their final order of merit.
Paper I is of general studies
The nature and standard of questions in these papers will be such that a well-educated person will be able to answer them without any specialized study. The questions will be such as to test a candidate’s general awareness of a variety of subjects, which will have relevance for a career in Civil Services; I am giving you the model of previous years solved paper below
And paper II is from a selected list of optional subjects for preliminary examinations.
The course content for the optional subjects will be of the degree level. Each paper is of two hours duration. Blind candidates are allowed an extra time of 20 minutes for each paper.
Only those candidates who are declared by the Commission to have qualified in the Preliminary Examination in a year will be eligible for admission to the Main Examination of that year provided they are otherwise eligible for admission to the Main Examination.
Subjects for Paper II (one subject to be selected): Agriculture, Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science, Botany, Chemistry, Civil Engineering, Commerce, Economics, Electrical Engineering, Geography, Geology, Indian History, Law, Mathematics, Mechanical Engineering, Medical Science, Philosophy, Physics, Political Science, Psychology, Public Administration, Sociology, Statistics, Zoology.
SOLVED TEST PAPER OF GENERAL STUDY PRE CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION, for more information about examination please log on to
given site>
Civil Service Examinations
Information on the examinations and tips for taking them. |
General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination (2004) |
1. Match List-I (Institute) with List - II (located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List - I (Institute) A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism B. International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute List - II (Located At) 1. 2. Mumbai 3. 4. Codes: (a) A B C D 2 3 1 4 (b) A B C D 1 4 2 3 (c) A B C D 2 4 1 3 (d) A B C D 1 3 2 4 2. Consider the following statements: 1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology. 2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production. 3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Reinhold Messner :Computer Technology (b) Harlow Shapley :Astronomy (c) Gregor Mendel :Hereditary Theory (d) Godfrey Hounsfield :CT Scan 4. Consider the following international languages: 1. Arabic 2. French 3. Spanish The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is (a) 3-1-2 (b) 1-3-2 (c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-2-3 5. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker? (a) K.V.K. Sundaram (b) G.S. Dhillon (c) Baliram Bhagat (d) Hukum Singh 6. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other? (a) 2 : 40 p.m. (b) 3 : 20 p.m. (c) 4 : 10 p.m (d) 4 : 20 p.m. 7. In a question of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The examinees are required to match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is given that (i) no examinee has given the correct answer (ii) answers of no two examinees are identical What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test? (a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 119 (d) 129 The details given below relate to the four items that follow: Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines–one each on politics, sports, science and films are available to choose from. They are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila (not necessarily in that order) and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev Publishers (not necessarily in that order). Further, it is given that (i) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz (ii) the magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers (iii) the magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published by Charan Publishers (iv) the magazine on science is edited by Ila For the following four items, select the correct answer: 8. The magazine on science is published by (a) Aryan Publisher (b) Bharat Publishers (c) Charan Publishers (d) Dev Publishers 9. The magazine on sports is (a) edited by Feroz (b) edited by Gurbaksh (c) published by Bharat Publishers (d) published by Charan Publishers 10. The magazine on films is (a) published by Dev Publishers (b) published by Bharat Publishers (c) edited by Gurbaksh (d) published by Charan Publishers 11. The magazine on politics is (a) edited by Ila (b) edited by Gurbaksh c) published by Dev Publishers (d) published by Charan Publishers |
12. Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Distinguished Ladies)
A. Jhumpa Lahiri
B. Sunita Narain
C. Naina Lal Kidwai
D. Ravina Raj Kohli
List-II
(Area of Work)
1. Science and environment
2. Novel-writing
3. Film industry
4. Banking
5. Television media
Codes:
(a) A B C D
4 5 3 1
(b) A B C D
2 1 4 5
(c) A B C D
4 1 3 5
(d) A B C D
2 5 4 1
13. Which one of the following does not border
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field
400 m × 300 m. And B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they
cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?
(a) Not even once
(b) Once
(c) Twice
(d) Thrice
15. Match List-I (Beaches in
below the Lists:
List-I
(Beaches in
A.
B.
C.
D.
List-II
(States)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3.
4.
5. Karnataka
Codes:
(a) A B C D
5 4 2 1
(b) A B C D
3 1 5 4
(c) A B C D
5 1 2 4
(d) A B C D
3 4 5 1
16. A car is running on a road at uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant
force on the car is
(a) driving force in the direction of car’s motion
(b) resistance force in the direction of car’s motion
(c) an inclined force
(d) equal to zero
17. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-II (States) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Biosphere Reserves) (States)
A. Similipal 1.
B. Dehong Deband 2. Uttaranchal
C. Nokrek 3. ArunachalPradesh
D.
5. Meghalya
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 3 5 4
(b) A B C D
4 5 2 1
(c) A B C D
1 5 2 4
(d) A B C D
4 3 5 1
18. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest
cover?
(a)
(c) Haryana (d) Kerala
19. How many three-digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding
digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit and 7 is the preceding
digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit?
(a) 120 (b) 210
(c) 365 (d) 405
20. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Sports-person) (Sports/Game)
A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton
B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming
C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn
Tennis
D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker
5. Hockey
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 5 4 2
(b) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
2 5 4 3
21. The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket is now being held by M. Hayden.
Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were
(a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey
(b) Len Huton, Peter May and Vivian Richards
(c) Hanif Mohammed,
(d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara
22. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them, Ajit and Mukherjee,
are never together?
(a) 120 (b) 240
(c) 360 (d) 480
23. Match List-I (State/Province/Overseas Territory) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(State/Province/Overseas (Country)
Territory)
A. British
B.
C.
D. Rhode Island 4.Germany
5.
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 2 5 3
(b) A B C D
3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
1 4 2 3
(d) A B C D
3 2 5 1
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work,
but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is
completed in
(a) 45 days (b) 50 days
(c) 54 days (d) 62 days
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Unit of Indian Railway Location
(a) Railway Staff : Vadodra
College
(b) Central :
Organization
for Railway
Electrification
(c) Wheel and Axle Plant :
(d) Rail-coach : Kapurthala
Factory
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite
and fibre optics transmission.
3. A digitial library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on the
Internet only.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Match List-I (New Names of the Countries) with List-II (Old Names
of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(New Names of (Old Names of the
the Countries) Countries)
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 1 2 4
(b) A B C D
5 4 3 1
(c) A B C D
3 4 2 1
(d) A B C D
5 1 3 4
29. Which one of the following is the correct in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of India-Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Judges of the Supreme Court-Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court-Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Members of Parliament
30. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students
will have identical date and month of their birth is
(a) 3/1000
(b) 3/365
(c) 1/(365)2
(d) 1/(365)3
31. Consider the following statements:
1.
2.
3. Claims to
4. In 1991,
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
32. Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Price in 2003, is from
(a)
(c)
33. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and
the floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is
(a) a straight line
(b) an elliptical path
(c) a circular path
(d) a parabolic path
34. The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for Medicine in 2003, relates to
(a) the control of AIDS
(b) magnetic resonance imaging
(c) respiratory diseases
(d) genetic engineering
35. In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first ever woman Vice-Chancellor of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
36. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 39
(c) 93 (d) 39 - 3
37. Goerge W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following American States?
(a)
(c)
38. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Department Ministry of the Government of
1. Department of : Ministry of
Women and Child Health and
Development Family Welfare
2. Department of : Ministry of
Official Language Human
Resource Development
3. Department of : Ministry of Drinking Water Water
Supply Resources
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
39. Match List-I (Agency) with List-II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Agency) (Headquarters)
A.United Nations 1.
Development
Programme (UNDP)
B. United Nations 2.
Environment Programme
(UNEP)
C. United Nations Industrial 3.
Development Organization
(UNIDO)
D. Universal Postal Union 4. New
(UPU)
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(b) A B C D
4 1 2 3
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
4 3 2 1
40. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prizes twice?
(a) Margaret Atwood
(b) J.M. Coetzee
(c) Grahm Swift
(d) Ian McEwan
41. In the well-known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi–the partner of Mahesh Bhupati, comes
from which of the following countries?
(a)
(c)
42. Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket Test Match innings by an Indian?
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Vinoo Mankad
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) V.V.S. Laxman
43. INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by
(a)
(c)
44. INSAT-3E, India’s communication satellite, was launched in 2003 from
(a) French Guiana (b)
(c)
45. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Position) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Person)
A. Anil Kakodar
B. Raman Puri
C. M. Jagannatha Rao
D. G. Madhavan Nair
List-II
(Position)
1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff
2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission
3. Chairman, ISRO
4. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 1 2 4
(b) A B C D
4 2 1 3
(c) A B C D
3 2 1 4
(d) A B C D
4 1 2 3
46. Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:
1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.
2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.
3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own script–Gurumukhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
47. Consider the following Viceroys of Indian during the British rule:
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?
(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4
48. Consider the following events during
1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage
2. Minto-Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?
(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4
49. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in
2. Formation of
3.
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 4-1-2-3
50. Match List-I (Fuel Gases) with List-II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Fuel Gases)(Major Constituents)
A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane
C. LPG 3. Methane, Ethane
D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 1 3 4
(b) A B C D
3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
2 4 3 1
(d) A B C D
3 1 2 4
51. A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity w around a circular path of radius r.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The body has no acceleration
(b) The body has a radial acceleration directed directed towards the centre of the path
(c) The body has a radial acceleration directed away from the centre of the path
(d) The body has an acceleration tangential to its path
52. Which one of the following statements is correct?
‘
(a) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji
(b) a warship recently acquired by Indian Navy
(c) a recently started air service between Mumbai and
(d) a luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes
53. Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market contains
(a) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metals
(b) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metals
(c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals
(d) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metals
54. A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to
(a) (b)
(c) (d) Zero
55. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
(a) Zinc and sulphur
(b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium
(d) Chromium and nickel
56. Consider the following statements:
1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January, 1950.
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of
Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in rupees)
of the minerals produced in
(a) Metallic minerals-Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals
(b) Fuel minerals-Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals
(c) Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Fuel minerals
(d) Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Metallic minerals
58. Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not correctly matched
with its country?
(a)
(b)
(c) Cancun :
(d)
59. Consider the following statements:
As per 2001 Census
1. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and
2. the two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio
Which of the statements given agove is / are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
60. Consider the following statements:
1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodhi
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah in the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
61. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?
(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax
(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs.1.20 lakh for widows
(c) Elimination of standard deduction
(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity
62. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Books)
A. My Presidential year
B. The Hindu View of Life
C. Voice of Conscience
D. Without Fear or Favour
List-II
(Authors)
1. S. Radhakrishnan
2. V. V. Giri
3. N. Sanjiva Reddy
4. R. Venkataraman
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(b) A B C D
4 3 2 1
(c) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(d) A B C D
4 1 2 3
63. Consider the following statements:
1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.
2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. What was the reason for 5 lakh people of
(a) They were demanding tax relief
(b) They were against the
(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom
(d) They were demanding more direct elections in
65. Consider the following statements:
1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector.
2. Power Grid Corporation of
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known as
(a) a campaigner for urban sanitation
(b) an anti-child labour activist
(c) an organizer of rain-water harvesting schemes
(d) an activist for the welfare of poor rural women
67. Consider the following statements:
1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Positions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Persons)
A. B.P. Mishra
B. Suresh Kalmadi
C. Praful Patel
D. V.S. Jain
List-II
(Positions)
1. Executive Director, IMF
2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd.
3. President, Indian Olympic Association
4. Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank
Codes:
(a) A B C D
4 2 1 3
(b) A B C D
1 3 4 2
(c) A B C D
4 3 1 2
(d) A B C D
1 2 4 3
69. Who among the following is well known as an exponent of flute?
(a) Debu Choudhuri
(b) Madhup Mudgal
(c) Ronu Mazumdar
(d) Shafaat Ahmad
70. Consider the following statements:
Among the Indian States
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline
2.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan), has become famous because of
(a) cultivation of genetically modified cotton
(b) rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS
(c) livelihood projects for destitute rural women
(d) rain-water harvesting
72. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of
2. The Small Industries Development Bank of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
73. Param Padma, which was in news recently, is
(a) a new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of
(b) the name of supercomputer developed by
(c) the name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of
(d) a software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh
74. Consider the following statements
1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of
2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs.
50,000 for accidental death and Rs.25,000 for permanent disability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Consider the following statements:
1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of
2. Government of
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
76. Consider the following statements:
1. farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices
2. most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall
3. oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited
4. It is far cheper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. World’s longest ruling head of government is from
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
78.
(a) harbouring terrorists
associated with religious fundamentalism
(b) supplying raw uranium to
(c) its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people
(d) cultivation of drug-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs
79. Consider the following statements:
1. P.V. Narasimha Rao’s government established diplomatic relations between
2. Ariel
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. The reason for
(a) discovery of huge reserves of oil
(b) separatist rebellious activities by the local people
(c) continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in the great loss of human life
(d) intense cold wave killing hundreds of people
81. The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the year 2003?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
82. Conisder the following companies:
1.
2. Titan Industires
3. Rallis India
4. Indian Hotels
Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of industries?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
83. In which of the following countries, did an ethnic violence between the communities of Hema and Lendu result in the death of hundreds of people?
(a) Democratic
(b)
(c)
(d)
84. More than 40 Heads of States / Governments were invited by Vladimir Putin in May, 2003 to
(a) discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of
(b) celebrate the tricentenary of the city of
(c) convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss the issues of missile shield for European and CIS countries
(d) develop the strategies for containing global terrorism
85. Consider the following geological phenomea:
1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or
mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
87. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongs the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
88. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Pitt’s
(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie
(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon
89. Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the
(a) Firoz Shah Tughuq
(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq
Shah - II
(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(d) Nasrat Shah
90. The great Asian river
(a)
(c) Combodia (d)
91. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in
(a) Birlasoft
(b) Infosys Technologies
(c) Tata Consultancy Services
(d) Wipro Technologies
92. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The largest Buddhist monastery in
(b) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland
(c) The largest river island in the world is in
(d) Sikkin is the least-populated State of the Indian
93. Consider the following statements:
1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of
2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of
3. An expert Committee headed by Dr. R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel policy recommended that
Bharat Stage-II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by 1 April, 2004.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
94. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into
(a) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(b) Services sector
(c) Food processing
(d) Telecommunication
95. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by Kanishka.
2. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar come to an end?
(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment
(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmadnagar
(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul Mulk
(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family was killed by the Mughal troops
97. With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Jainism was spread in
(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra
(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC
(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images unlike Buddhists
98. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?
(a) Rig-veda (b) Yajur-veda
(c) Atharva-veda (d) Sama-veda
99. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) the Government of
(c) the Government of
(d) the Indian
100. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj should be
defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?
(a) Mazharul Haque
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(d) Abul Kalam Azad
101. Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?
(a) Shankaracharya-Ramanuja-Chaitanya
(b) Ramanuja-Shankaracharya-Chaitanya
(c) Ramanuja-Chaitanya-Shankaracharya
(d) Shankaracharya-Chaitanya-Ramanuja
102. Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in
1.
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara
The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2
103. The name of the famous persons of
British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Syed Ahmed Khan
104. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
105. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings : Union List
Bank
(d) Public Health : State List
106. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
107. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
108. Consider the following statements:
1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and siezed the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.
2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.
3. Vira Narashima was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
109. Consider the following statements:
Some of the main features of the Government of
1. abolition of diarchy in the Governors’ provinces
2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. abolition of the principle communal representation
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
110. Consider the following statements:
1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
111. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M. A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of
(d) The Constitution of
112. The Archaeological Survey of
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource
Development
113. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the high Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
114. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidised price.
(b) Under
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month at BPL rates
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-day Meal Scheme for the benefit of class I to V students in Government or Government aided Schools
116. Consider the following statements:
1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.
2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.
3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.
4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. The hormone insulin is a
(a) Glycolipid (b) Fatty acid
(c) Peptide (d) Sterol
118. Consider the following statements:
1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
119. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?
(a) Liver
(b) Long bone
(c) Pancreas
(d) Spleen
120. In which one of the following Union Territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?
(a) Andaman and
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Daman and
(d)
121. Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton 2. Groundnut
3. Maize 4. Mustard
Which of the above are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
122. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
123. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
124. Consider the following statements:
1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society,
2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of
3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
125. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries?
(a)
(c)
126. Lativa does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?
(a)
(c)
127. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
128. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Minerals) (Location)
A. Coal 1. Giridih
B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam
C. Manganese 3. Alwar
D. Lignite 4. Dharwar
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 4 3 2
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
1 3 4 2
(d) A B C D
2 4 3 1
129. Which among the following
(a) Agra-Mumbai
(b) Chennai-Thane
(c) Kolkata-Hajira
(d) Pune-Machilipatnam
130. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?
1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai
2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali
3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology,Thiruvananthapuram
4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
131. Consider the following statements:
1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.
3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
132. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates
of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
133. Match List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Sea) (Country)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 4 2 3
(b) A B C D
2 3 1 4
(c) A B C D
1 3 2 4
(d) A B C D
2 4 1 3
134. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of
as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the
(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258
(c) Article 355 (d) Article 356
135. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
List-I List-II
(Period) (Wars)
1. AD 1767-69 : First Anglo-Maratha War
2. AD 1790-92 : Third
3. AD 1824-26 : First Anglo Burmese War
4. AD 1845-46 : Second Sikh War
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
136. Consider the following:
1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3.
What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3
(c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1
137.
Rajasthan?
(a) Bharatpur (b) Jaipur
(c)
138. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of
List-I List-II
(Articles of the Consti- (Provision)
tution of
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws withing the
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office
under the State
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(b) A B C D
3 1 4 2
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
3 4 1 2
139. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals
(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes
(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and feathery appearance
(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds
140. Match List-I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(National Park/ (State)
Sanctuary)
A. Kanger Ghati 1. Chhattisgarh
National Park
B. Nagerhole 2. Haryana
National Park
C. Kugti Wildlife 3. Himachal
Sanctuary Pradesh
D. Sultanpur Bird 4. Karnataka
Sanctuary
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 2 1 4
(b) A B C D
1 4 3 2
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
1 2 3 4
141. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooggly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as port
142. Consider the following statements:
1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian Calender
2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632.
3. The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Directions:
The following 8 (eight) items consist of two Statements; one lablelled as the ‘Assertion(A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are
to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the corrrect explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
143. Assertion (A) :
Reason (R) :
144. Assertion (A) : The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in
Reason (R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of
145. Assertion (A) : West-flowing rivers of Peninsular
Reason (R) : These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.
146. Assertion (A) : The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.
Reason (R) : High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.
147. Assertion (A) : In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60 times per second.
Reason (R) : The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.
148. Assertion (A) : Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet.
Reason (R) : The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.
149. Assertion (A):
Reason (R) : About 97% of
150. Assertion (A) : For the first time,
Reason (R) : For the first time,
Answers
1. c 2. a 3. a
4. a 5. a 6. b
7. c 8. c 9. a
10. b 11. b 12. b
13. d 14. b 15. b
16. d 17. d 18. c
19. c 20. d 21. c
22. d 23. b 24. a
25. b 26. b 27. d
28. b 29. b 30. c
31. b 32. c 33. c
34. b 35. b 36. c
37. b 38. d 39. b
40. b 41. c 42. d
43. c 44. a 45. d
46. d 47. a 48. b
49. a 50. b 51. b
52. d 53. c 54. d
55. c 56. d 57. b
58. b 59. d 60. b
61. b 62. d 63. c
64. b 65. a 66. b
67. c 68. b 69. c
70. b 71. d 72. c
73. b 74. b 75. d
76. b 77. b 78. c
79. a 80. b 81. c
82. d 83. a 84. b
85. d 86. a 87. c
88. c 89. c 90. b
91. c 92. a 93. a
94. d 95. d 96. a
97. c 98. c 99. b
100. b 101. a 102. c
103. c 104. d 105. b
106. a 107. b 108. d
109. b 110. c 111. a
112. a 113. d 114. d
115. a 116. d 117. c
118. c 119. b 120. a
121. b 122. a 123. d
124. d 125. a 126. d
127. b 128. c 129. c
130. a 131. d 132. a
133. c 134. a 135. d
136. c 137. b 138. c
139. a 140. b 141. c
142. d 143. d 144. c
145. a 146. d 147. d
148. c 149. b 150. d
General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination (2003)held on 18th May, 2003
http://www.geocities.com/indiancivilservices/
Q1. The Basque people who are frequently in the news for their separatist activity live in:
(a) France (b) Italy
(C) Portugal (d) Spain
Q 2. Match List-I (High Officials) with List-II (Organisation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(High Officials) (Organisation)
A. C. P. Jain 1. Indian Airlines
B. S. Ramadoral 2. NTPC
C. Sunil Arora 3. TCS
D. Vivek Paul 4. Wipro Technologis
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Q 3. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors
(b) Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of tooth paste
(c) Bordeaux mixture consists of Sodium sulphate and lime
(d) Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling
Q 4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 5. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Dust particles
(c) Helium (d) Water vapours
Q6. In India, the fist bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was:
(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Punjab and Sind Bank
7. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasijudicial body established under an Act of Parliament
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media persons so as to have easy access to information from government sources
(c) Among all the States of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.
8. The government holding in BPCL is:
(a) more than 70%
(b) between 60% and 70%
(c) between 50% and 60%
(d) less than 50%
9. Consider the following statements regarding the relations between
(1) During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC.
(2)
(3)
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1
10. During the year 2000-01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth rate in
(a) Cement (b) Coal
(c) Electricity (d) Steel
11. An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then:
(a) remains horizontal
(b) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end.
(c) Is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end
(d) Assumes parabolic curve
12. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency?
(a)
(c)
13. Which one of the following countries is land locked?
(a)
(c)
14. Which one of the following countries does NOT border the
(a)
(c)
15. The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated with:
(a) Sailing (b) Hockey
(c) Golf (d) Athletic
16. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical
smog?
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Nitrogen Oxides
(c) Ozone (d) Methane
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Kitab-I-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II.
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toil at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again?
(a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10.30 a.m.
(c) 11.00 a.m. (d) 1.30 p.m.
19. Match List-I (Distinguished Lady) with List-II (Organisation/Industry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Distinguished Lady) (Organisation/Industry)
A. Amrita Patel 1. National Dairy Development Board
B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels
C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited
D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited
5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 5 2
(b) 2 4 1 5
(c) 1 3 5 2
(d) 2 3 1 5
20. Consider the following statements:
In the Electoral College for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
State Population
Number of elected MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
Total number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
21. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal
(b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit
(d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple
22. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd
23. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?
(a) He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles
(b) He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the capture of Punjab
(c) He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later
(d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan
24. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter
(c) Japanese (d) Portuguese
26. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(b) (b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council
27. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements:
1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Survey of
(a) Defence (b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs (d) Science and Technology
29. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?
(a)
(c)
30. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is:
(a) 6 hours 45 minutes
(b) 7 hours 45 minutes
(c) 8 hours 15 minutes
(d) 8 hours 30 minutes
31. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award is mainly an activist in:
(a) prevention of child marriages
(b) promotion of communal harmony
(c) environmental protection
(d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits
32. What was the main reason for a great civil strife in
(a) Ethnic conflict between the native Red Indian tribes and others
(b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt
(c) The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools
(d) Clashes between government troops and secessionist groups
33. With reference to colonial rule in
(a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
(b) To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers
(c) To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting them in India
(d) To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act.
34. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was:
(a) that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India
(b) the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War
(c) the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war.
(d) The framing of a constitution for the entire Indian
35. When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the:
(a) Swarajya party
(b) Indian Freedom Party
(c) Independence Federation of India
(d) Indian Liberal Federation
36. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in the year 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
37. Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002?
(a) Albert Costa (b) Juan Carlos Ferrero
(c) Andre Agassi (d) Pete Sampras
38. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the
39. Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?
(a) Chattisgarh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa (d) Rajasthan
40. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
(a)
(b)
(c) Indonesia
(d)
41. Consider the following statements:
1. In
2. 2. In Kosovo, Serbians area majority.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
42.
(a)
(b)
(c) Cyprus,
(d)
43. What is the correct sequence of the rivers – Godavari, Mahanadi,
(a) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi
(b) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi
(c) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi
(d) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
44. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would:
(a) increase by 0.5%
(b) increase by 2%
(c) decrease by 0.5%
(d) decrease by 2%
45. With reference to the entry of European powers into
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
(b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
(c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746
46. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi_Irwin Pact
47. Consider the following statements:
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a)
(b)
(c) India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
(d)
49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
50. With reference to Government of
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, the single largest Indian shareholder should have a holding higher than 26%
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was:
(a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
(b) a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was illtreated and expelled from the country
(c) the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
(d) a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe
52. The battle of Dharmat was fought between
(a) Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
(b) Babur and the Afghans
(c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
(d) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
53. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in
(a) Kolkata (b) Kochi
(c) Mimbai (d)
54. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes can be generated by waving
(1) single flag of different colours, or
(2) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
(3) three flags in a different sequence of colours
The maximum number of codes that can be generated is:
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 18
55. Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Organisation) (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
D. Institute of National Integration 4.
5.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 5 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 5 2
(d) 5 4 2 3
56. Tim Montgomery set a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in:
(a) Long Jump
(b) 110 m Hurdle race
(c) 100 m Dash
(d) High Jump
57. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will:
(a) decrease in size
(b) flatten into a disc-like shape
(c) increase in size
(d) maintain the same size and shape
59. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
(a) The President of
(b) The Chief Justice of
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
60. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b)
(c)
61. Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
62. Consider the following statements:
1.
2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of:
(a)
(c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab
64. Consider the following statements:
1.
2.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of
(a) A. B. Vajpayee (b) Jaswant Singh
(c) P. C. Alexander (d) Yashwant Sinha
66. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an early end?
(a) He was deposed by his Wazir
(b) He died due to a slip while climbing down steps
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
(d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine
67. In
(a)
(c)
68. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on parliamentary Affairs
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
69. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in
(a) Agriculture
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Commerce and Industry
(d) Rural Development
70. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his State
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
71. Among the following cities, which one is at the highest altitude above mean sea level?
(a)
(c)
72. Consider the following statements:
1. Steam at 1000C and boiling water at 1000C contain same amount of heat.
2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the latent heat of vaporization of water
3. In an air-conditioner, heat is extracted from the room-air at the evaporator coils and is rejected out at the condenser coils.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process.
2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.
3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
74. Consider the following statements:
1. Longitude of
2. Latitude of
3.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Which one among the following States is smallest in area?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b)
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
76. Consider the following statements:
A4-wheel vehicle moving in a sharp circular path at high speed will:
1. overturn about its outer wheels.
2. overturn about its inner wheels
3. skid outwards
4. skid inwards
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
77. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of States and specifies their territories?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
78. In the year 2002, the President of
(a) Kumar Manglam Birla
(b) N. R. Narayana Murthy
(c) `Rahul Bajaj
(d) Ratan Tata
79. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist ‘C’ moves such that ACB is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse
(b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle
(c) The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve
(d) This type of motion is not possible
80. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in:
(a)
(c) Jharkhand (d) Orissa
81. Among the following commodities imported by
(a) Edible oil
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Organic and inorganic chemicals
(d) Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones
82. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:
1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
2. Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The presence of NACI increases the rate of setting of Plaster of Paris
(b) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down its rate of setting
(c) All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts
(d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature
84. With reference to
(a) IPCL is India’s largest petrochemical company
(b) RIL is the largest private sector company in India
(c) MTNL is listed on NYSE
(d) BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time
85. Which amongst the following States has the highest population density as per Census-2001?
(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d)
86. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty second Amendment
87. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Rajagopalachari
88. The waterfall’Victoria’ is associated with the river:
(a) Amazon (b)
(c) St.
89. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was:
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vithalbhai J. Patel
(d) Mahadev Desai
90. The Kelkar proposals which were in the news recently were the:
(a) recommendations for reforms in the power sector
(b) recommendations for tax reforms
(c) guidelines for the privatization of public sector undertakings
(d) guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution, and the promotion of CNG use
91. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
92. Life expectancy is highest in the world in:
(a)
(c) Japan (d)
93. During the colonial period in
(a) To review the fitness of India for further political reforms
(b) To report on the existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations
(c) To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India
(d) To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India
94. Octopus is:
(a) an arthropod
(b) an echinoderm
(c) a hemichordate
(d) a mollusk
95. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body:
1. Swollen lymph nodes
2. Sweating at night
3. Loss of memory
4. Loss of weight
Which of these are the symptoms of AIDS?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
96. Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the
(a) Pulakesin-I (b) Pulakesin-II
(c) Vikramaditya-I (d) Vikramaditya-II
97. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
98. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a:
(a) literature (b) musician
(c) scientist (d) sportsperson
99. Consider the following statements:
1. The maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in
2. Foreign Direct Investment upto 49 percent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. Match List-I (Cricketer) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Cricketer) (Country)
A. Barry Richards 1.
B. Ted Dexter 2.
C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa
D. Charlie Griffith 4.
5.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 5 1
(b) 5 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 5 2
(d) 5 2 4 1
101. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to:
(a) orientation (b) shape
(c) size (d) spin
102. Consider the following statements:
1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.
2. The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
103. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
(a)
(c) Pakistan (d)
Directions: The following fifteen (15) items consist of two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
104. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards
Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in
105. Assertion (A): During the year 2001-02, the value of
Reason (R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, coffee, textiles and marine products.
106. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of
Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
107. Assertion (A): The new EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason (R): GATT has played a significant role in the libralisation of the economy.
108. Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in a group.
Reason (R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
109. Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
110. Assertion (A): The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason (R): The earth is not a perfect sphere.
111. Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.
112. Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.
113. Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.
114. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative Council.
Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.
115. Assertion (A): Shah Alam Ii spent the initial years as an Emperor far away from his capital.
Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
116. Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near the equator.
117. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title.
Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.
118. Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in
Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.
119. In December 2002, the prime Minister of India signed ‘Delhi declaration’ with the:
(a) President of Indonesia
(b) President of Russia
(c) Prime Minister of Cambodia
(d) Prime Minister of Laos
120. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
(a)
(c)
121. ‘Mrichchhakatika’ an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with:
(a) the love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan
(b) the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India
(c) the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta
(d) the love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa
122. Consider the following statements:
1. Vardhamana Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchavi chief Chetaka.
2. Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty.
3. parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
123. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is:
(a) 18 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr
124. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is:
1. to keep the washing powder dry.
2. to maintain the alkalinity of the powder
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
125. Debenture holders of a company are its:
(a) Shareholders (b) Creditrso
(c) Debtors (d) Directors
126. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year
(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947
(d) The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the national Anthem of India
127. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355
128. ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each other at:
(a) 8.30 a.m. (b). 8.10 a.m.
(c) 7.48 a.m. (d) 7.42 a.m.
129. Consider the following statements:
In
1. levied and collected by the State Government.
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) East Timor was a British colony for four centuries
(b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to
(c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence
(d)
131. Match List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List-II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Item in the Indian Constitution) (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles Of State Policy 1.
B. Fundamental Rights 2.
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3.
D.
powers to the Union 5.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 3 5 1 2
132. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command.
(b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles
(c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km
(d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles
133. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to:
(a) John Hume
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Norodom Sihanouk
(d) Sadak Ogata
134. Match List-I (Name of the Person) with List-II (Associated with) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Name of the Person) (Associated with)
A. Brijmohan Lall Munjal 1. Biotechnology
B. Kiran Karnik 2. Automobile industry
C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw 3. Software industry
D. Sunil Mittal 4. Telecom industry
5.Film industry
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 1 5 4
135. Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the
(a) Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyett
(b) Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
(c) Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge
(d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek
136. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours, 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished. The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is:
(a) Rs 2.75 (b) Rs. 3.75
(c) Rs. 9.75 (d) Rs. 12.50
137. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in
(a) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in the year 2001
(b) FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to complete the investigation of pending issues
(c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence
(d) As per the new dispensation, enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of foreign exchange rules
138. Consider the following statements:
1.
2. During the year 2001-02,
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
139. Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Lata Mangeshkar
(c) Ramanand Sagar
(d) Yash Chopra
140. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins
(b) Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
(c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
(d) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure
141. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
(a) India-Sri Lanka-Pakistan-Maldives
(b) Maldives-Sri Lanka-India-Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka-Maldives-India-Pakistan
(d) Maldives-India-Pakistan-Sri Lanka
142. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature
(b) The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure
(c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases
(d) The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency
143. Consider the following statements:
1.
2.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
144. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines
(b) The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports
(c) The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organization for enforcing civil air regulations in India
(d) It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services
145. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
146. Consider the following animals of
1. Crocodile
2. Elephant
Which of these is/are endangered species?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
147. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?
(a) Temperate Coniferous forests
(b) Temperate Deciduous forests
(c) Tropical Monsoon forests
(d) Tropical Rain forests
148. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 14
149. Consider the following statements:
1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne
3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
150. The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s dispatch of 1854 was:
(a) the creation of employment opportunities for native Indians
(b) the spread of western culture in India
(c) the promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language
(d) the introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d)
36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39 (a) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d)
56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a)
66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d)
76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a)
86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d)
96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a)
101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d)
106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b)
111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b)
116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (b)
126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (d)
136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (b) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (d)
146. (d) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)
Dear brothers there is nothing impossible for determined person
Start your direction towards civil services and win the race
Thank you
Keep it up
Yours truly,
Dr Rambilas Singh Gurjar