Friday, April 20, 2012

gurjarworld: Which Language Is Best for My Child? अध्यन के दौरान कौनसी भाषा होनी चाहिए , मेरे बच्चे की पढाई के लिए कौनसी भाषा श्रेष्ठ है ?

gurjarworld: Which Language Is Best for My Child? अध्यन के दौरान कौनसी भाषा होनी चाहिए , मेरे बच्चे की पढाई के लिए कौनसी भाषा श्रेष्ठ है ?

Which Language Is Best for My Child? अध्यन के दौरान कौनसी भाषा होनी चाहिए , मेरे बच्चे की पढाई के लिए कौनसी भाषा श्रेष्ठ है ?

Which Language Is Best for My Child?

The most favorite language to learn is mother language ,so it is better to make your child learn fast in mother language ,The new emergent concept now a days is in favor of study in your mother language ,by the teacher who know mother language of your kid

Many parents approach their children's Second language learning with a very specific reason and goal in mind. For these families, selecting a second language may be a clear choice. 

They plan on taking trips abroad and want their child to be able to appreciate their destination in a way far beyond just soaking up the sights. 

Or they hope their child will pick up their new language and use it to communicate with a relative who might feel most comfortable in a language other than Hindi (mother language).That may be English as a second language .
For many of us, however, the answer isn't quite as obvious. Selecting a language might seem a lot like picking classes in high school or college

अध्यन के दौरान
 कौनसी भाषा होनी चाहिए   ,
मेरे बच्चे की पढाई  के लिए  कौनसी भाषा श्रेष्ठ है ?

सबसे अधिक उचित भाषा मत्री भाषा होती है ,बच्चा दस माह की भाषा उम्र से सीखना शुरू करता है ,सबसे पहली गुरु माँ(जन्म दात्री या पालन पोषण करने बाली यशोदा ) होती है ,
   बही हमें शुरुआती दिनों की भाषा का बोध कराती है ,जो भाषा माँ बोलती है वही भाषा हमारे जीवन की सबसे अधिक सिखाने बाली भाषा बन जाती है ,अब नए शोध परिणामों से यह बात सामने आयी है ,की मातृभाषा ही सीखने की सर्वोत्तम भाषा मानी जाती है. इसलिए  हमें मातृभाषा में अंग्रेजी को समझा सकने बाले अध्यापकों से ही बच्चो की पढाई शुरुआती पढाई करवानी चाहिए जो की बच्चे को समझ सकें और समझा सकें   
क्या विकल्प के रूप में दूसरी भाषा का ज्ञान होना चाहिए ?

हाँ यह बहुत जरूरी है ,यह बात शोधों से सामने आयी है की दो भाषाओँ का ज्ञान आधुनिक  युग ,मैं चार गुना तेजी से  व्यक्तित्व  और मानसिक   विकाश करती है ,
आधुनिक भूमंडलीकरण के युग में जहाँ कंप्यूटर की सबसे उपयुक्त भाषा के रूप में अंग्रेजी को मान्यता मिल रही है ,वहीं पूरी दुनिया के लोग चाहे वह रसियन यो या जर्मन ,चीनी हो या अफ्रीकन ,सभी अंग्रेजीकरण  की और आकर्षित हुए हैं .सभी देश  भूमंडल में व्यापार काम काज और अध्ययन तथा भ्रमण के लिए अंग्रेजी भाषा का इस्तेमाल कर रहे हैं ,समस्त विश्व में अंग्रेजी माध्यम के विश्वविद्यालय खोल कर विदेशी छात्रों को आकर्षित किया जा रहा है ,यानि अध्ययन और कम्यूटर के लिए सर्वमान्य भाषाओँ में अंग्रेजी अपना स्थान बना रही है 
एसी परिस्थितियों में हमारे देश में अंग्रेजी माध्यम से शिक्षा प्राप्त करना एक फैसन  सा बन गया है ,चाहे वह उन परिवारों के बच्चों के समझ न में आये जिनकी मातृभाषा सिर्फ हिन्दी रही हो ,इसका एक स्पष्ट कारन है जिस परिवार में अंगरेजी भाषा नहीं बोली जाती या जिन परिबारों में अंग्रेजी भाषा में मदद करने बाले परिवारी सदस्य नहीं हैं ,उन परिवारों में  बच्चों अंग्रेजी भाषा को सीखने में काफी कठिनाईयां आती हैं ,अगर इन परस्थितियों में अध्यापन के लिए अंग्रेजी ज्ञान बाले मातृभाषा के अध्यापक न हों तो कुछ समय के लिए बच्चों को काफी संघर्ष से गुजरना पड़ता है  इसका समाधान करना है तो हमें मातृभाषा में अंग्रेजी को समझा सकने बाले अध्यापकों से ही बच्चो की पढाई करवानी चाहिए जो की बच्चे को समझ सकें और समझा सकें     

Friday, September 30, 2011

काल्पनिक डर, कितना खतरनाक है है ?

काल्पनिक डर, कितना खतरनाक है ???
काल्पनिक डर कोई अन्य काल्पनिक इमोसंस (emotions ) की तरह नहीं है ,डर की तो कल्पना भी, दूसरी इमोसंस की वास्तविकता से कई गुना भयावह है

,मौत और अनिश्चितता से डरा कर ,बीमा कम्पनियों और धर्मान्धता का कारोबार बखूबी चलता है ,
अगर स्वर्ग में धार्मिकों को लालच की बात न की जाये ,और अगर बीमा कंपनी म्रत्यु के बाद तीन गुना प्रीमियम परिजनों को अदा करने का बादा न करें तो सोचो बीमा कंपनी और धार्मिकता कैसे चले ,अगर बीमार को मृत्यु का डर ना हो तो अस्पताल कैसे चलें ,

दूसरे मुल्क(दुश्मन देश ) ,दूसरे धर्म द्वारा, खुद के मुल्क ,या खुद के धर्म,जाती , पार्टी ,संविधान ,पर हमला बता कर, हर देश देश वासियों या एक धर्म,जाती ,पार्टी ,संविधान पर लोगों को खतरे से डराते है ,और अपने देश धर्म, जाती ,पार्टी ,और संविधान पर मर मरने मिटने के लिए सबको एकजुट कर लेते है ,

वास्तविकता में यह काल्पनिक डर भी ,बहुत बड़ा फेक्टर है, जो देश ,धर्म ,बीमा कंपनी, जाती ,पार्टी ,और संविधान और अस्पताल को चलाता है, ,

डर सभी को लगता है ,डर से आगे जीत है ,

डर सभी को लगता है ,डर से आगे जीत है ,

इन व्क्यंशों में छुपा है डर से मुकाबला कर दो चार हाथ कर लेने की कुब्बत ,वह गुर्जरों में कूट कूट कर भरी है ,

गुर्जरों ने डरना तो सीखा ही नहीं ,चाहे वो अरब आक्रान्ता रहे हों या अंग्रेज सबसे खूब लोहा लिया ,हार नहीं मानी रार खूब ठानी ,डर का सामना होने पर जहां अच्छे अच्छे योद्धाओं की घिग्घी बंध जाती है वहां गुर्जर डंटे रहते है ,यह सब डर से मुकाबले की ट्रेनिंग हमारे वातावरण में मौजूदऔर अंदरूनी ताकत हमारे खून और जींस मैं मौजूद है
आइये हम जाने डर से मुकाबले के लिए क्या परिस्थितियां जरूरी हैं .,
डर हर व्यक्ति तो क्या हर जीव को सताता है ,हम डर से जीवन की समस्त जीवन पद्धति को सीखते हैं ,डर और इच्छा रहित कोई जीव या इंसान नहीं ,सिर्फ निर्जीव वस्तुएं ,डर और इच्छा रहित हो सकती हैं
,जब हमारे अन्दर जीवन जीने की इच्छा मौजूद रहती है तो हम डर से बचना सीखते हैं ,डर पर काबू पाना सीखते हैं
पेन्सिल्वेनिया यूनीवर्सिटी के वैज्ञानिक साईकोलोजिस्ट, मार्टिन सेल्डिगमेन, ने अपने शोध कार्यों में पाया कि डर पर काबू पाना सीखने के लिए हमारी जीवन जीने की आकांक्षा का होना बहुत जरुरी है ,हम जीवन जीने के लिए तभी तक संघर्ष करते हैं जब हमें जीवन जीने की आशा बची होती है

,यह साबित करने के लिए की हर इंसान पर डर से मुकाबला करने के लिए ट्रेनिंग का बिशेष महत्व होता है मार्टिन महोदय ने कुत्तों के ऊपर एक अद्भुत प्रयोग किया ,उसने कुत्तो के two A,B,समूह बनाए

समूह A के कुत्तों को एक पिंजरे में बंद कर पट्टे से बांध दिया गया ,फिर उन्हें नियंत्रित मात्र में कुछ सेकेंड्स के लिए पिंजरे के फर्श में बिछी रोड्स से विद्युत करंट लगाया गया ,मार्टिन महोदय ने देखा की कुत्तों को भागने या उछलने की कोई स्वतंत्रता नहीं थी अतः ग्रुप अ के कुत्तों ने भाग्य को ही अपनी नियति मान लिया और करंट लगाने को चुप चाप लेटकर सहन करते रहे ,

अब उन्होंने दूसरा ग्रुप B का परीक्षण करते समय कुत्तों को पिंजरे में फ्री छोड़ दिया ,और उतनी ही मात्र में पिंजरे के फर्श में बिछी रोड्स से विद्युत करंट लगाया गया ,अब मार्टिन ने देखा की यह कुत्ते करंट लगाने पर पहाडी बकरी की तरह करंट प्रवाह होने उछलने लगे और अपना बचाव सीख गए

,इस ट्रेनिंग के बाद जब मुख्य प्रयोग शुरू किया गया तो पाया गया ,की जिन कुत्तों को पट्टे से बाँध कर करंट प्रवाह से आदी बना दिया गया था ,पिजरे में बिना पट्टा बंधे खुला छोड़ने पर भी न तो करंट से बचने के लिए उछलने की प्रक्रिया दुहराई ना ही उस खिड़की से बच कर भागने की कोशिश की जो की उस दीवार में खुली छोड़ दी थी ,लेकिन ग्रुप बी के कुत्ते पहले तो जlन बचने के लिए उछले बाद में खुली खिड़की से कूद कर भाग गए ,
यहाँ मार्टिन महोदय ने निष्कर्ष निकाला जिन कुत्तों को डर के साथ कम्प्रोमाईज कर खुद को डर से साथ अडजस्ट करना सीख लिया था उन्होंने जीवन से मोह छोड़ कर भाग्य के भरोसे डिप्रेसन में जीना सीख लिया था,लेकिन दूसरे ग्रुप ने अपनी जान बचाने का हर संभव उपाय करना सीख लिया था

,http://www.braincrave.com/viewblog.php?id=529.

Thursday, September 29, 2011

डराने के लिए ,डर का कारोबार.

डराने के लिए ,डर का कारोबार.
डर इंसान की सबसे ताकतवर और प्राचीनतम इमोसन(भावना ) है .

The oldest and strongest emotion of mankind is fear."
--- H.P. Lovecraft .

क्या डरना जरूरी है ??.
डर का हमारे आधुनिक जीवन में क्या महत्व है ?
आधुनिक सोच यही कहती है नियंत्रित डर से हम अपने मस्तिष्क को खतरों से लड़ने की ट्रेनिंग दे सकते हैं .हम अपने परिवार को स्पेसियली छोटे बच्चों को भी आज डरावनी फिल्मों को देखने की इजाजत आराम से दे रहे हैं .
क्या इसमें कोई खतरा तो नहीं ???
आज हमारे लिए डर पर काबू पाना बहुत जरूरी हो गया है ,
बच्चा पढाई के डर से पीड़ित है ,
किशोर प्रेम संबंधों की असफलता ,या न होने की आशंका से पीड़ित है ,
पिता कारोबार और नौकरी के डर से पीड़ित है ,
तो ग्रहिणी परिवार की समस्यायों से डरती है ,
ब्रद्ध मृत्यु के डर से व्याकुल हैं ,यानी डर सबको सताता है ,
तो फिर डर से बचा कैसे जाये ??
सिर्फ नियंत्रित स्थितियों में ट्रेनिंग द्वारा डर पर काबू पाना सीख सकते हैं,कहते हैं कि डर के आगे जीत है
चाहे वो अड्वेंचर गेम हों या फ़िल्में ,कहानी या वार्तालाप,कॉमिक या सीरियल .कुछ भी एसा हो जो काल्पनिक डर पैदा कर धड़कन बढ़ा दे ,आज का फिल्म उद्योग चाहे होलीबुड,हो या बौलीबुड .सभी जगह डर का कारोबार चल रहा है ,बिना डर को शामिल किये कोई फिल्म बनाना असंभव सा लगता है ,

एसा क्यों है ???
आधुनिक काल के शोधकर्ताओं ने पाया है कि डर सबसे अधिक ताकतबर भावना है ,आज लोग डराने के लिए पैसे खर्च कर रहे हैं ,अगर इंसान के सामने से डर ख़त्म हो जाये तो जीवन नीरस सा लगता है ,हम डर के साए में रहकर जितना तेजी और सटीकता से अपने कार्य को अंजाम देते है ,उतना किसी अन्य भावना के द्वारा नहीं ,डर के दौरान हम लालच ,और सेक्सुअल अट्रेकसन, से भी अधिक तेजी काम को अंजाम देते हैं ,
एसा क्यों ?
हमारे शोधकर्ता बताते हैं ,कि जब जीवन खतरे में होता हैं तो हमारे शरीर के अन्दर बहुत तेजी से एड्रेनेलिन नामक हारमोन का श्रवण (secretion ) होता है ,जो कार्य को तेजी फुर्ती और दुरुस्ती से संपन्न करवाता है ,हमारा मस्तिस्क ,और पूरा शरीर एक मशीन की तरह बिना थके अवश्यक महत्वपूर्ण क्रियाओं को अंजाम देता है ,
यही कारण है कि आज होरर/डरावनी फिल्मों की मांग तेजी से बढ़ती जा रही है ,आज अड्वेंचर खेलों का प्रचलन बढ़ रहा है ,आज जांवाजी एक जूनून सा बन गया है,डर के दौरान एक शर्त है ,आपको खुद के ऊपर डर को काबू नहीं पाने देना है .अगर डर ने आपके ऊपर काबू पा लिया तो ,आप कुछ भी नहीं कर सकते ,
इसलिए सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है डर पर काबू पाना ,
यही कारण है ,कि हमें डर पर काबू पाने के लिए खुद को बार बार डरने की ट्रेनिंग देनी पड़ती है ,क्योंकि डर के आगे जीत है .किसी ज़माने में हम बच्चों को डरावनी मूवी देखने की इजाजत नहीं देते
थे
क्योंकि पुराने ज़माने की फ़िल्में भूत प्रेत से डराने की कोशिस करतीं थीं ,और उसका दुष्परिणाम होता था,रात में बच्चों का सपने में डर जाना ,या सदैव के लिए भूत से डरपोक बन जाना लेकिन आज की फिल्मों में फिल्म देखने के बाद सदैव के लिए डरपोक बन जाने का खतरा बिलकुल नहीं है ,क्योंकि आज की फ़िल्में पूरी तरह काल्पनिक हैं ,हम अपने बच्चों और स्वयं को इस काल्पनिक डर से सपने में तो डर सकते हैं ,लेकिन स्थायी रूप से डरने के लिए डरने का वास्तविक कारण काल्पनिक होने के कारण ,हम अपने बच्चों को और स्वयं को डर के प्रति आश्वश्त कर सकते है ,
हम आज के युवा को हम हिंसा रहित साफ़ सुथरी फिल्मों से संतुष्ट नहीं कर सकते ,यद्यपि पुरानी फिल्मों में भी खलनायकों की परम्परा रही है लेकिन उनमें नायक प्रधान फ़िल्में अधिक सफल होतीं थीं ,लेकिन आज का दौर खलनायक प्रधान फिल्मों की और बढ़ रहा है ,डर पर आधारित फिल्मों का नया दौर सा चल पड़ा है
सबसे सफल कारोबार करने बाली होलीबुड की 12 फिल्मों में से 9 फ़िल्में (75 % ) काल्पनिक डर पर आधारित हैं ,


,आज का डर भूत प्रेतों से नहीं नहीं , नई वैज्ञानिक खोजों पर आधारित ,
डायनोसोर्स(जुरासिक पार्क ) ,
गोडजिला ,
एलियंस,
स्टार वार्स
,हेरी पोटर में जादुई खलनायक १ to 6,
लोर्ड ऑफ़ दा रिंग्स 1to 3 .
दा ममी,
टाइटेनिक
ममी
रिटर्न्स
,एक्सोर्सिस्ट.
,जोड़ीअक,
सिक्स्थ सेन्स ,
इंटरव्यू विथ वेम्पायर,
,हेलोबीन,
हौन्टिंग मूवीज से डराया जा रहा है .इसे देखने के लिए हम उतावले हैं ,वयस्क तो वयस्क आज डरने के लिए बच्चे भी उतावले हैं ,लेकिन ध्यान रहे ,मूवी के बाद बच्चों को वास्तविकता से अवगत करा दें ,यह सब काल्पनिक है .

,


Saturday, November 10, 2007

Examination for the Civil Services conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the peoples who are interested in becoming an IAS officer

For determined person, it is not so tough, now opportunity for average student who had secured at least 1st division in graduation has increased. Because most of creamy layer intelligent students get separated after senior higher secondary examination, for the Medical and Engineering examination .and fewer students who are predetermined and confident has better economic support and guidance from family not in hurry to get the employment, wait for civil services until completion of graduate degree. once there was a trend when most of IITians Engineers were also aspirant to Civil services now due to boom in IT, Computer technology and entrance of multinational companies the had left this choice and now comparatively less students are appearing in civil service examination.

Becoming an IAS officer is a very good career option If you become an IAS officer, you become part of the Indian Administrative Service. You will be part of the Govt. You can work from “the inside” and change “the system”. , IAS is for you, if you determine to become an IAS officer, there is a lot more power and control you have so that you can be part of Emerging India! Besides that, IAS is a great career option! You get many “perks of the job” when you are an IAS officer. You will have “job security”, “discount on Govt. services”, “Govt. provided transportation” and many more things... Even though the monthly salary provided by the IAS career is not too high, the “perks” make up for the less salary

Basically getting into the IAS is not that easy, there is a very competitive “one year long” exam! To get into the IAS, you probably will have to try more than once before you succeed. And even if you clear the exam, then you have to get a very good score to qualify for the IAS,

Here I am giving you the web sites which may be helpful to you for your orientation

, 1.http://www.civilserviceindia.com

2.http://www.kadiravan.com

3.http://www.sriramsias.com

4http://www.iasgurukul.org

5.http://www.sriramsias.com/sriramsiastea … dvice.html.

6.http://nvkishore.blogspot.com/search/la … 20services

6. indiahowto.com

7Civil Service Examinations

IAS CIVIL EXAMINATION Exam Details:

All India Combined Competitive Examination for the Civil Services conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) comprises of two successive stages:

1. Preliminary Examination: It is of objective type, which is a qualifying examination for the selection of candidates for Main Examination (Remarks : More details on the UPSC web site.)

2. Main Examination: It consists of written examination and interview for the selection of candidates for the various services and posts.

The Preliminary Examination is held in May/June and the Main Examination in October/November.

One must begin preparations of the main exam along with preliminary exam. This is because there is little time for the Main exam if one waits for the results of the Preliminaries.

. How many times are you allowed to give the exam?

*If you belong to the “Open Category” you can give the exam 4 times maximum!

*If you belong to the “OBC” you can give the exam 7 times.

*If you belong to the “SC/ST” you can give the exam as many times as you want. There is no restriction on the number of times!

What is eligibility, and age limit?

Minimum academic qualifications prescribed
A Graduate (BA, BCom, BSc or Higher) degree from a recognized university or equivalent

Age Limits
21-30 years as on 1.8.2008 for next session, (i.e. the session on which year you are appearing)

Remarks
Only such of the candidates as are declared qualified on the results of Preliminary Examination are eligible to take the Main Examination

If a person appears in the Preliminary Exam or even appears in one paper, it is counted as an attempt.

Scheme of CS (Preliminary) Examination

The Preliminary Examination consists of two papers of objective type (multiple-choice questions) carrying a maximum of 450 marks.
The Question Papers (Test Booklets) are set in English & Hindi,

Paper - I

General Studies

150 Marks

Paper - II

One of the optional subjects to be selected from the prescribed optional subjects

300 Marks

List of Optional Subjects CS (Preliminary) - Total 23

Agriculture

Mathematics

Animal Husbandry & Vet nary Science

Mechanical Engineering

Botany

Medical Science

Chemistry

Philosophy

Civil Engineering

Physics

Commerce

Political Science

Economics

Psychology

Electrical Engineering

Public Administration

Geography

Sociology

Geology

Statistics

Indian History

Zoology

Law



Where is the exam conducted?

The following cities have exam centers:

1.Agartala2.Gangtok3.Panaji(Goa)5.Ahmedabad6.Hyderabad7.Patna8.Aizawl9.Imphal10.Pondicherry11.Aligarh12.Itanagar13.PortBlair14.Allahabad16.Jaipur17.Raipur18.Aurangabad19.Jammu20.Ranchi21.Bangalore22.Jodhpur23.Sambalpur24.Bareilly25.Jorhat26.Shillong27.Bhopal28.Kochi29.Shimla30.Chandigarh31.Kohima32.Srinagar33.Chennai34.Kolkata35Thiruvananthapuram36.Cuttack37.Lucknow38.Tirupati39.Dehradun40.Madurai41.Udaipur42.Delhi43.Mumbai44.Vishakhapatnam45.Dharwar46Nagpur47.Dispur

What is the Course of Preliminary Examination?

It will consist of two papers of Objective type (multiple choice questions) and carry a maximum of 450. The question papers are set in Hindi as well as in English. Preliminary Examination is meant to serve as a screening test only;

The marks obtained by the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination will not be counted for determining their final order of merit.

Paper I is of general studies

The nature and standard of questions in these papers will be such that a well-educated person will be able to answer them without any specialized study. The questions will be such as to test a candidate’s general awareness of a variety of subjects, which will have relevance for a career in Civil Services; I am giving you the model of previous years solved paper below

And paper II is from a selected list of optional subjects for preliminary examinations.

The course content for the optional subjects will be of the degree level. Each paper is of two hours duration. Blind candidates are allowed an extra time of 20 minutes for each paper.

Only those candidates who are declared by the Commission to have qualified in the Preliminary Examination in a year will be eligible for admission to the Main Examination of that year provided they are otherwise eligible for admission to the Main Examination.

Subjects for Paper II (one subject to be selected): Agriculture, Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science, Botany, Chemistry, Civil Engineering, Commerce, Economics, Electrical Engineering, Geography, Geology, Indian History, Law, Mathematics, Mechanical Engineering, Medical Science, Philosophy, Physics, Political Science, Psychology, Public Administration, Sociology, Statistics, Zoology.

SOLVED TEST PAPER OF GENERAL STUDY PRE CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION, for more information about examination please log on to

given site>

Civil Service Examinations

Information on the examinations and tips for taking them.
www.geocities.com/indiancivilservices/ -

General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination (2004)

1. Match List-I (Institute) with List - II (located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List - I

(Institute)

A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism

B. International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and

New Materials

C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History

D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute

List - II

(Located At)

1. Coimbatore

2. Mumbai

3. Jabalpur

4. Hyderabad

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 3 1 4

(b) A B C D

1 4 2 3

(c) A B C D

2 4 1 3

(d) A B C D

1 3 2 4

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology.

2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production.

3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India’s

Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Reinhold Messner :Computer Technology

(b) Harlow Shapley :Astronomy

(c) Gregor Mendel :Hereditary Theory

(d) Godfrey Hounsfield :CT Scan

4. Consider the following international languages:

1. Arabic

2. French

3. Spanish

The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is

(a) 3-1-2 (b) 1-3-2

(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-2-3

5. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?

(a) K.V.K. Sundaram

(b) G.S. Dhillon

(c) Baliram Bhagat

(d) Hukum Singh

6. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars

run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car

Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other?

(a) 2 : 40 p.m. (b) 3 : 20 p.m.

(c) 4 : 10 p.m (d) 4 : 20 p.m.

7. In a question of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The examinees are required to

match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is given that

(i) no examinee has given the correct answer

(ii) answers of no two examinees are identical

What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test?

(a) 24 (b) 26

(c) 119 (d) 129

The details given below relate to the four items that follow:

Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines–one each on politics, sports, science and films are

available to choose from. They are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila (not necessarily in that order)

and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev Publishers (not necessarily in that order). Further, it is given that

(i) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz

(ii) the magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers

(iii) the magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published by Charan Publishers

(iv) the magazine on science is edited by Ila

For the following four items, select the correct answer:

8. The magazine on science is published by

(a) Aryan Publisher

(b) Bharat Publishers

(c) Charan Publishers (d) Dev Publishers

9. The magazine on sports is

(a) edited by Feroz

(b) edited by Gurbaksh

(c) published by Bharat Publishers

(d) published by Charan Publishers

10. The magazine on films is

(a) published by Dev Publishers

(b) published by Bharat Publishers

(c) edited by Gurbaksh

(d) published by Charan Publishers

11. The magazine on politics is

(a) edited by Ila

(b) edited by Gurbaksh

c) published by Dev Publishers

(d) published by Charan Publishers

12. Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Distinguished Ladies)

A. Jhumpa Lahiri

B. Sunita Narain

C. Naina Lal Kidwai

D. Ravina Raj Kohli

List-II

(Area of Work)

1. Science and environment

2. Novel-writing

3. Film industry

4. Banking

5. Television media

Codes:

(a) A B C D

4 5 3 1

(b) A B C D

2 1 4 5

(c) A B C D

4 1 3 5

(d) A B C D

2 5 4 1

13. Which one of the following does not border Panama?

(a) Costa Rica

(b) Pacific Ocean

(c) Colombia

(d) Venezuela

14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field

400 m × 300 m. And B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they

cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?

(a) Not even once

(b) Once

(c) Twice

(d) Thrice

15. Match List-I (Beaches in India) which List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given

below the Lists:

List-I

(Beaches in India)

A. Gopnath Beach

B. Lawsons Bay Beach

C. Devbagh Beach

D. Sinquerim Beach

List-II

(States)

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Gujarat

4. Goa

5. Karnataka

Codes:

(a) A B C D

5 4 2 1

(b) A B C D

3 1 5 4

(c) A B C D

5 1 2 4

(d) A B C D

3 4 5 1

16. A car is running on a road at uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant

force on the car is

(a) driving force in the direction of car’s motion

(b) resistance force in the direction of car’s motion

(c) an inclined force

(d) equal to zero

17. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-II (States) and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Biosphere Reserves) (States)

A. Similipal 1. Sikkim

B. Dehong Deband 2. Uttaranchal

C. Nokrek 3. ArunachalPradesh

D. Kanchenjunga 4. Orissa

5. Meghalya

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 3 5 4

(b) A B C D

4 5 2 1

(c) A B C D

1 5 2 4

(d) A B C D

4 3 5 1

18. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest

cover?

(a) Sikkim (b) Goa

(c) Haryana (d) Kerala

19. How many three-digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding

digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit and 7 is the preceding

digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit?

(a) 120 (b) 210

(c) 365 (d) 405

20. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Sports-person) (Sports/Game)

A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton

B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming

C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn

Tennis

D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker

5. Hockey

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 5 4 2

(b) A B C D

2 4 1 3

(c) A B C D

3 4 1 2

(d) A B C D

2 5 4 3

21. The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket is now being held by M. Hayden.

Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were

(a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey

(b) Len Huton, Peter May and Vivian Richards

(c) Hanif Mohammed, Garfield Sobers and Brian Lara

(d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara

22. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them, Ajit and Mukherjee,

are never together?

(a) 120 (b) 240

(c) 360 (d) 480

23. Match List-I (State/Province/Overseas Territory) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(State/Province/Overseas (Country)

Territory)

A. British Colombia 1. USA

B. Bavaria 2. UK

C. Gibraltar 3. Canada

D. Rhode Island 4.Germany

5. Denmark

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 2 5 3

(b) A B C D

3 4 2 1

(c) A B C D

1 4 2 3

(d) A B C D

3 2 5 1

24. Consider the following statements:

1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.

3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

25. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work,

but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is

completed in

(a) 45 days (b) 50 days

(c) 54 days (d) 62 days

26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Unit of Indian Railway Location

(a) Railway Staff : Vadodra

College

(b) Central : Varanasi

Organization

for Railway

Electrification

(c) Wheel and Axle Plant : Bangalore

(d) Rail-coach : Kapurthala

Factory

27. Consider the following statements:

1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.

2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite

and fibre optics transmission.

3. A digitial library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on the

Internet only.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

28. Match List-I (New Names of the Countries) with List-II (Old Names

of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(New Names of (Old Names of the

the Countries) Countries)

A. Benin 1. Nyasaland

B. Belize 2. Basutoland

C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland

D. Malawi 4. British Honduras

5. Dahomey

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 1 2 4

(b) A B C D

5 4 3 1

(c) A B C D

3 4 2 1

(d) A B C D

5 1 3 4

29. Which one of the following is the correct in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?

(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Suprem Court-Members of Parliament - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of India-Members of Parliament

(c) Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Judges of the Supreme Court-Members of Parliament

(d) Judges of the Supreme Court-Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Members of Parliament

30. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students

will have identical date and month of their birth is

(a) 3/1000

(b) 3/365

(c) 1/(365)2

(d) 1/(365)3

31. Consider the following statements:

1. Montenegro and Serbia agreed to a new structure for the Yugoslav Federation.

2. Croatia remained under the Hungarian Administration until the end of First World War.

3. Claims to Macedonia Territory have long been a source of contention between Belgium and Greece.

4. In 1991, Slovenia declared independence from Czechoslovakia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

32. Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Price in 2003, is from

(a) Iraq (b) Nigeria

(c) Iran (d) Libya

33. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and

the floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is

(a) a straight line

(b) an elliptical path

(c) a circular path

(d) a parabolic path

34. The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for Medicine in 2003, relates to

(a) the control of AIDS

(b) magnetic resonance imaging

(c) respiratory diseases

(d) genetic engineering

35. In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first ever woman Vice-Chancellor of

(a) Oxford University

(b) Cambridge University

(c) Harvard University

(d) Purdue University

36. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?

(a) 27 (b) 39

(c) 93 (d) 39 - 3

37. Goerge W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following American States?

(a) California (b) Texas

(c) Virginia (d) Indiana

38. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Department Ministry of the Government of India

1. Department of : Ministry of

Women and Child Health and

Development Family Welfare

2. Department of : Ministry of

Official Language Human

Resource Development

3. Department of : Ministry of Drinking Water Water

Supply Resources

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) None

39. Match List-I (Agency) with List-II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Agency) (Headquarters)

A.United Nations 1. Nairobi

Development

Programme (UNDP)

B. United Nations 2. Vienna

Environment Programme

(UNEP)

C. United Nations Industrial 3. Berne

Development Organization

(UNIDO)

D. Universal Postal Union 4. New

(UPU) York

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 3 4 1

(b) A B C D

4 1 2 3

(c) A B C D

2 1 4 3

(d) A B C D

4 3 2 1

40. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prizes twice?

(a) Margaret Atwood

(b) J.M. Coetzee

(c) Grahm Swift

(d) Ian McEwan

41. In the well-known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi–the partner of Mahesh Bhupati, comes

from which of the following countries?

(a) Italy (b) Sweden

(c) Belarus (d) Croatia

42. Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket Test Match innings by an Indian?

(a) Sunil Gavaskar

(b) Vinoo Mankad

(c) Sachin Tendulkar

(d) V.V.S. Laxman

43. INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by

(a) Israel (b) USA

(c) Russia (d) France

44. INSAT-3E, India’s communication satellite, was launched in 2003 from

(a) French Guiana (b) Seychelles

(c) Mauritius (d) Mauritania

45. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Position) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Person)

A. Anil Kakodar

B. Raman Puri

C. M. Jagannatha Rao

D. G. Madhavan Nair

List-II

(Position)

1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff

2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission

3. Chairman, ISRO

4. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 1 2 4

(b) A B C D

4 2 1 3

(c) A B C D

3 2 1 4

(d) A B C D

4 1 2 3

46. Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:

1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.

2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.

3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own script–Gurumukhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

47. Consider the following Viceroys of Indian during the British rule:

1. Lord Curzon

2. Lord Chelmsford

3. Lord Hardinge

4. Lord Irwin

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?

(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3

(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4

48. Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle:

1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage

2. Minto-Morley Reforms

3. Dandi March

4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3

(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4

49. Consider the following events:

1. Fourth general elections in India

2. Formation of Haryana State

3. Mysore named as Karnataka State

4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States

Which one of the following is correct chronological order of the above?

(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1

(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 4-1-2-3

50. Match List-I (Fuel Gases) with List-II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Fuel Gases)(Major Constituents)

A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen

B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane

C. LPG 3. Methane, Ethane

D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 1 3 4

(b) A B C D

3 4 2 1

(c) A B C D

2 4 3 1

(d) A B C D

3 1 2 4

51. A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity w around a circular path of radius r.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The body has no acceleration

(b) The body has a radial acceleration directed directed towards the centre of the path

(c) The body has a radial acceleration directed away from the centre of the path

(d) The body has an acceleration tangential to its path

52. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Deccan Odyssey’ is

(a) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji

(b) a warship recently acquired by Indian Navy

(c) a recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo

(d) a luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes Goa in its journey

53. Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market contains

(a) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metals

(b) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metals

(c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals

(d) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metals

54. A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to

(a) (b)

(c) (d) Zero

55. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?

(a) Zinc and sulphur

(b) Potassium and mercury

(c) Strontium and barium

(d) Chromium and nickel

56. Consider the following statements:

1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January, 1950.

2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the

Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

57. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in rupees)

of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002-03?

(a) Metallic minerals-Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals

(b) Fuel minerals-Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals

(c) Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Fuel minerals

(d) Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Metallic minerals

58. Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not correctly matched

with its country?

(a) Salamanca : Spain

(b) Cannes : Italy

(c) Cancun : Mexico

(d) Bruges : Belgium

59. Consider the following statements:

As per 2001 Census

1. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab

2. the two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram

3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio

Which of the statements given agove is / are correct?

(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

60. Consider the following statements:

1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodhi

2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.

3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plassey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) None

61. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?

(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax

(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs.1.20 lakh for widows

(c) Elimination of standard deduction

(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity

62. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Books)

A. My Presidential year

B. The Hindu View of Life

C. Voice of Conscience

D. Without Fear or Favour

List-II

(Authors)

1. S. Radhakrishnan

2. V. V. Giri

3. N. Sanjiva Reddy

4. R. Venkataraman

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 1 4 3

(b) A B C D

4 3 2 1

(c) A B C D

2 3 4 1

(d) A B C D

4 1 2 3

63. Consider the following statements:

1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.

2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a demonstration around the middle of 2003?

(a) They were demanding tax relief

(b) They were against the Hong Kong Government’s plan to impose an internal security law

(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom

(d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong

65. Consider the following statements:

1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector.

2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom sector.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known as

(a) a campaigner for urban sanitation

(b) an anti-child labour activist

(c) an organizer of rain-water harvesting schemes

(d) an activist for the welfare of poor rural women

67. Consider the following statements:

1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India

2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Positions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Persons)

A. B.P. Mishra

B. Suresh Kalmadi

C. Praful Patel

D. V.S. Jain

List-II

(Positions)

1. Executive Director, IMF

2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd.

3. President, Indian Olympic Association

4. Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank

Codes:

(a) A B C D

4 2 1 3

(b) A B C D

1 3 4 2

(c) A B C D

4 3 1 2

(d) A B C D

1 2 4 3

69. Who among the following is well known as an exponent of flute?

(a) Debu Choudhuri

(b) Madhup Mudgal

(c) Ronu Mazumdar

(d) Shafaat Ahmad

70. Consider the following statements:

Among the Indian States

1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline

2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan), has become famous because of

(a) cultivation of genetically modified cotton

(b) rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS

(c) livelihood projects for destitute rural women

(d) rain-water harvesting

72. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Param Padma, which was in news recently, is

(a) a new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India

(b) the name of supercomputer developed by India

(c) the name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of India

(d) a software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh

74. Consider the following statements

1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India.

2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs.

50,000 for accidental death and Rs.25,000 for permanent disability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. Consider the following statements:

1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy.

2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.

3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the States/Union Territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

76. Consider the following statements:

India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the country because

1. farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices

2. most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall

3. oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited

4. It is far cheper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

77. World’s longest ruling head of government is from

(a) Switzerland

(b) Cuba

(c) Zimbabwe

(d) New Zealand

78. Liberia was in the international news in the recent times for

(a) harbouring terrorists

associated with religious fundamentalism

(b) supplying raw uranium to North Korea

(c) its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people

(d) cultivation of drug-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs

79. Consider the following statements:

1. P.V. Narasimha Rao’s government established diplomatic relations between India and Israel

2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Israel to have visited India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is

(a) discovery of huge reserves of oil

(b) separatist rebellious activities by the local people

(c) continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in the great loss of human life

(d) intense cold wave killing hundreds of people

81. The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the year 2003?

(a) Czech Republic

(b) Romania

(c) Serbia

(d) Slovenia

82. Conisder the following companies:

1. Voltas

2. Titan Industires

3. Rallis India

4. Indian Hotels

Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of industries?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

83. In which of the following countries, did an ethnic violence between the communities of Hema and Lendu result in the death of hundreds of people?

(a) Democratic Republic of Congo

(b) Indonesia

(c) Nigeria

(d) Zambia

84. More than 40 Heads of States / Governments were invited by Vladimir Putin in May, 2003 to

(a) discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of Iraq

(b) celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg

(c) convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss the issues of missile shield for European and CIS countries

(d) develop the strategies for containing global terrorism

85. Consider the following geological phenomea:

1. Development of a fault

2. Movement along a fault

3. Impact produced by volcanic eruption

4. Folding of rocks

Which of the above cause earthquakes?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or

mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?

(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45

(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368

87. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongs the following can be its Chairman?

(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court

(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court

(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India

(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court

88. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hastings

(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie

(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon

(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon

89. Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?

(a) Firoz Shah Tughuq

(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq

Shah - II

(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud

(d) Nasrat Shah

90. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through

(a) China (b) Malaysia

(c) Combodia (d) Laos

91. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in India during the year 2002-03?

(a) Birlasoft

(b) Infosys Technologies

(c) Tata Consultancy Services

(d) Wipro Technologies

92. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam

(b) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland

(c) The largest river island in the world is in Assam

(d) Sikkin is the least-populated State of the Indian Union

93. Consider the following statements:

1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with effect from 1-4-2002.

2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of India.

3. An expert Committee headed by Dr. R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel policy recommended that

Bharat Stage-II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by 1 April, 2004.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

94. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?

(a) Chemicals other than fertilizers

(b) Services sector

(c) Food processing

(d) Telecommunication

95. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by Kanishka.

2. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar come to an end?

(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment

(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmadnagar

(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul Mulk

(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family was killed by the Mughal troops

97. With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of Sthalabahu

(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra

(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC

(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images unlike Buddhists

98. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?

(a) Rig-veda (b) Yajur-veda

(c) Atharva-veda (d) Sama-veda

99. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of

(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b) the Government of India Act, 1919

(c) the Government of India Act, 1935

(d) the Indian Independence Act, 1947

100. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj should be

defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?

(a) Mazharul Haque

(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani

(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan

(d) Abul Kalam Azad

101. Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?

(a) Shankaracharya-Ramanuja-Chaitanya

(b) Ramanuja-Shankaracharya-Chaitanya

(c) Ramanuja-Chaitanya-Shankaracharya

(d) Shankaracharya-Chaitanya-Ramanuja

102. Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in India:

1. Jhansi

2. Sambalpur

3. Satara

The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is

(a) 1-2-3 (b) 1-3-2

(c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2

103. The name of the famous persons of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the

British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was

(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru

(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee

(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(d) Syed Ahmed Khan

104. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the

(a) Lok Sabha alone

(b) either House of Parliament

(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament

(d) Rajya Sabha alone

105. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following paris is not correctly matched?

(a) Forests : Concurrent List

(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List

(c) Post Office Savings : Union List

Bank

(d) Public Health : State List

106. Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections

2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President

3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election

4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes

Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

107. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.

2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.

3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

108. Consider the following statements:

1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and siezed the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.

2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narashima was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.

4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

109. Consider the following statements:

Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the

1. abolition of diarchy in the Governors’ provinces

2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own

3. abolition of the principle communal representation

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

110. Consider the following statements:

1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta

2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji

3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

111. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M. A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India

(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947

(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950

112. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of

(a) Culture

(b) Tourism

(c) Science and Technology

(d) Human Resource

Development

113. Consider the following statements:

1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge.

2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.

3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.

4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the high Court before it is carried out.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

114. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.

2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.

3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House’.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidised price.

(b) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible for National Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grains per person per month free of cost

(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month at BPL rates

(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-day Meal Scheme for the benefit of class I to V students in Government or Government aided Schools

116. Consider the following statements:

1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.

2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.

3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.

4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

117. The hormone insulin is a

(a) Glycolipid (b) Fatty acid

(c) Peptide (d) Sterol

118. Consider the following statements:

1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.

2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.

Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

119. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?

(a) Liver

(b) Long bone

(c) Pancreas

(d) Spleen

120. In which one of the following Union Territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(c) Daman and Diu

(d) Lakshadweep

121. Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton 2. Groundnut

3. Maize 4. Mustard

Which of the above are Kharif crops?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

122. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based

(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules

(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted

(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence

123. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States

(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution

(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas

(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

124. Consider the following statements:

1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India

2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.

3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

125. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries?

(a) Fiji (b) Mauritius

(c) Malaysia (d) Kenya

126. Lativa does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

(a) Russia (b) Estonia

(c) Lithuania (d) Poland

127. Consider the following statements:

1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India

2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council.

3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

128. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Minerals) (Location)

A. Coal 1. Giridih

B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam

C. Manganese 3. Alwar

D. Lignite 4. Dharwar

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 4 3 2

(b) A B C D

2 3 4 1

(c) A B C D

1 3 4 2

(d) A B C D

2 4 3 1

129. Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?

(a) Agra-Mumbai

(b) Chennai-Thane

(c) Kolkata-Hajira

(d) Pune-Machilipatnam

130. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?

1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai

2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali

3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology,Thiruvananthapuram

4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

131. Consider the following statements:

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

132. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law

(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates

of taxes which are already under operation

(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

133. Match List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Sea) (Country)

A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria

B. Red Sea 2. China

C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea

D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 4 2 3

(b) A B C D

2 3 1 4

(c) A B C D

1 3 2 4

(d) A B C D

2 4 1 3

134. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised

as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258

(c) Article 355 (d) Article 356

135. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

List-I List-II

(Period) (Wars)

1. AD 1767-69 : First Anglo-Maratha War

2. AD 1790-92 : Third Mysore war

3. AD 1824-26 : First Anglo Burmese War

4. AD 1845-46 : Second Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3

136. Consider the following:

1. Mahadeo Hills

2. Sahyadri Parvat

3. Satpura Range

What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?

(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3

(c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1

137. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of

Rajasthan?

(a) Bharatpur (b) Jaipur

(c) Jodhpur (d) Udaipur

138. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Articles of the Consti- (Provision)

tution of India)

A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws withing the territory of India

C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden

D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office

under the State

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 4 1 3

(b) A B C D

3 1 4 2

(c) A B C D

2 1 4 3

(d) A B C D

3 4 1 2

139. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals

(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes

(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and feathery appearance

(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds

140. Match List-I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(National Park/ (State)

Sanctuary)

A. Kanger Ghati 1. Chhattisgarh

National Park

B. Nagerhole 2. Haryana

National Park

C. Kugti Wildlife 3. Himachal

Sanctuary Pradesh

D. Sultanpur Bird 4. Karnataka

Sanctuary

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 2 1 4

(b) A B C D

1 4 3 2

(c) A B C D

3 4 1 2

(d) A B C D

1 2 3 4

141. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides

(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel

(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river

(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooggly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as port

142. Consider the following statements:

1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian Calender

2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632.

3. The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

Directions:

The following 8 (eight) items consist of two Statements; one lablelled as the ‘Assertion(A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are

to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the corrrect explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

143. Assertion (A) : Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of Mangalore.

Reason (R) : Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south-west and north-east monsoons.

144. Assertion (A) : The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.

Reason (R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India

145. Assertion (A) : West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.

Reason (R) : These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.

146. Assertion (A) : The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.

Reason (R) : High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.

147. Assertion (A) : In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60 times per second.

Reason (R) : The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.

148. Assertion (A) : Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet.

Reason (R) : The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.

149. Assertion (A): India does not export natural rubber

Reason (R) : About 97% of India’s demands for natural rubber is met from domestic production.

150. Assertion (A) : For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002-03.

Reason (R) : For the first time, India’s exports crossed worth $50 billion in the year 2002-03.

Answers

1. c 2. a 3. a

4. a 5. a 6. b

7. c 8. c 9. a

10. b 11. b 12. b

13. d 14. b 15. b

16. d 17. d 18. c

19. c 20. d 21. c

22. d 23. b 24. a

25. b 26. b 27. d

28. b 29. b 30. c

31. b 32. c 33. c

34. b 35. b 36. c

37. b 38. d 39. b

40. b 41. c 42. d

43. c 44. a 45. d

46. d 47. a 48. b

49. a 50. b 51. b

52. d 53. c 54. d

55. c 56. d 57. b

58. b 59. d 60. b

61. b 62. d 63. c

64. b 65. a 66. b

67. c 68. b 69. c

70. b 71. d 72. c

73. b 74. b 75. d

76. b 77. b 78. c

79. a 80. b 81. c

82. d 83. a 84. b

85. d 86. a 87. c

88. c 89. c 90. b

91. c 92. a 93. a

94. d 95. d 96. a

97. c 98. c 99. b

100. b 101. a 102. c

103. c 104. d 105. b

106. a 107. b 108. d

109. b 110. c 111. a

112. a 113. d 114. d

115. a 116. d 117. c

118. c 119. b 120. a

121. b 122. a 123. d

124. d 125. a 126. d

127. b 128. c 129. c

130. a 131. d 132. a

133. c 134. a 135. d

136. c 137. b 138. c

139. a 140. b 141. c

142. d 143. d 144. c

145. a 146. d 147. d

148. c 149. b 150. d

General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination (2003)held on 18th May, 2003

http://www.geocities.com/indiancivilservices/



Q1. The Basque people who are frequently in the news for their separatist activity live in:

(a) France (b) Italy

(C) Portugal (d) Spain

Q 2. Match List-I (High Officials) with List-II (Organisation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(High Officials) (Organisation)

A. C. P. Jain 1. Indian Airlines

B. S. Ramadoral 2. NTPC

C. Sunil Arora 3. TCS

D. Vivek Paul 4. Wipro Technologis

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 1 3 2

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 2 3 1 4

(d) 2 1 3 4

Q 3. Which one of the following statements if correct?

(a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors

(b) Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of tooth paste

(c) Bordeaux mixture consists of Sodium sulphate and lime

(d) Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling

Q 4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in the early medieval times.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of South East Asia and conquered some of the areas.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 5. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to:

(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Dust particles

(c) Helium (d) Water vapours

Q6. In India, the fist bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was:

(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank

(b) Oudh Commercial Bank

(c) Punjab National Bank

(d) Punjab and Sind Bank

7. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasijudicial body established under an Act of Parliament

(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media persons so as to have easy access to information from government sources

(c) Among all the States of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers

(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.

8. The government holding in BPCL is:

(a) more than 70%

(b) between 60% and 70%

(c) between 50% and 60%

(d) less than 50%

9. Consider the following statements regarding the relations between India and Pakistan:

(1) During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC.

(2) Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997.

(3) Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3

(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1

10. During the year 2000-01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth rate in India?

(a) Cement (b) Coal

(c) Electricity (d) Steel

11. An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then:

(a) remains horizontal

(b) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end.

(c) Is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end

(d) Assumes parabolic curve

12. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency?

(a) Bhutan (b) Malaysia

(c) Maldives (d) Seychelles

13. Which one of the following countries is land locked?

(a) Bolivia (b) Peru

(c) Suriname (d) Uruguay

14. Which one of the following countries does NOT border the Caspian Sea?

(a) Armenia (b) Peru

(c) Kazakhstan (d) Turkmenistan

15. The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated with:

(a) Sailing (b) Hockey

(c) Golf (d) Athletic

16. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical

smog?

(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Nitrogen Oxides

(c) Ozone (d) Methane

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Kitab-I-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II.
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the early form of the musical style known as Qawali.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toil at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again?

(a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10.30 a.m.

(c) 11.00 a.m. (d) 1.30 p.m.

19. Match List-I (Distinguished Lady) with List-II (Organisation/Industry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Distinguished Lady) (Organisation/Industry)

A. Amrita Patel 1. National Dairy Development Board

B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels

C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited

D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited

5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 4 5 2

(b) 2 4 1 5

(c) 1 3 5 2

(d) 2 3 1 5

20. Consider the following statements:

In the Electoral College for Presidential Election in India,

1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals

State Population

Number of elected MLAs of the State x 100

2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals

Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs

Total number of elected MPs

3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2

(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3

21. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal

(b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore

(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit

(d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple

22. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?

(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th

(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd

23. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?

(a) He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles

(b) He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the capture of Punjab

(c) He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later

(d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan

24. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?

(a) Earth (b) Jupiter

(c) Japanese (d) Portuguese

26. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?

(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished

(b) (b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council

(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council

(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council

27. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements:

1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the duodenum.

2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(b) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Survey of India is under the Ministry of:

(a) Defence (b) Environment and Forests

(c) Home Affairs (d) Science and Technology

29. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?

(a) Iceland (b) India

(c) New Zealand (d) U.S.A.

30. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is:

(a) 6 hours 45 minutes

(b) 7 hours 45 minutes

(c) 8 hours 15 minutes

(d) 8 hours 30 minutes

31. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award is mainly an activist in:

(a) prevention of child marriages

(b) promotion of communal harmony

(c) environmental protection

(d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits

32. What was the main reason for a great civil strife in Argentina recently?

(a) Ethnic conflict between the native Red Indian tribes and others

(b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt

(c) The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools

(d) Clashes between government troops and secessionist groups

33. With reference to colonial rule in India, what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?

(a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned

(b) To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers

(c) To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting them in India

(d) To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act.

34. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was:

(a) that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India

(b) the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War

(c) the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war.

(d) The framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces

35. When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the:

(a) Swarajya party

(b) Indian Freedom Party

(c) Independence Federation of India

(d) Indian Liberal Federation

36. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in the year 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of Brazil were:

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

37. Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002?

(a) Albert Costa (b) Juan Carlos Ferrero

(c) Andre Agassi (d) Pete Sampras

38. Consider the following statements:

The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are

1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.

3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.

4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.

39. Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?

(a) Chattisgarh (b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Orissa (d) Rajasthan

40. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Indonesia

(d) Sri Lanka

41. Consider the following statements:

1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority.

2. 2. In Kosovo, Serbians area majority.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Israel has common borders with:

(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan

(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordon and Egypt

(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen

43. What is the correct sequence of the rivers – Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?

(a) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi

(b) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi

(c) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi

(d) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi

44. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would:

(a) increase by 0.5%

(b) increase by 2%

(c) decrease by 0.5%

(d) decrease by 2%

45. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499

(b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam

(c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633

(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746

46. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre

(b) Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc

(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association

(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi_Irwin Pact

47. Consider the following statements:

1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%

2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the year 2001-2002.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world

(b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world

(c) India is the second largest producer of silk in the world

(d) India ranks third in the world in coal production

49. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members

(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha

(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.

(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections

50. With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during the year 2001-02, consider the following statements:

1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in a tea sector, the foreign firm would have to disinvest 33% of the equity in favour of an Indian Partner within four years.

2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, the single largest Indian shareholder should have a holding higher than 26%

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was:

(a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi

(b) a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was illtreated and expelled from the country

(c) the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi

(d) a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe

52. The battle of Dharmat was fought between

(a) Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand

(b) Babur and the Afghans

(c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

(d) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas

53. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
(a) Kolkata (b) Kochi

(c) Mimbai (d) Visakhapatnam

54. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes can be generated by waving

(1) single flag of different colours, or

(2) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or

(3) three flags in a different sequence of colours

The maximum number of codes that can be generated is:

(a) 6 (b) 9

(c) 15 (d) 18

55. Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Organisation) (Location)

A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun

B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee

C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune

D. Institute of National Integration 4. Hyderabad

5. Kanpur

Codes

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 5 1 4 3

(c) 3 4 5 2

(d) 5 4 2 3

56. Tim Montgomery set a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in:

(a) Long Jump

(b) 110 m Hurdle race

(c) 100 m Dash

(d) High Jump

57. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:

1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery

2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will:

(a) decrease in size

(b) flatten into a disc-like shape

(c) increase in size

(d) maintain the same size and shape

59. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:

(a) The President of India

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Parliament

(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs

60. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta

(c) Madras (d) Orissa

61. Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?

(a) Article 142

(b) Article 143

(c) Article 144

(d) Article 145

62. Consider the following statements:

1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite (METSAT) in September, 2002.

2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of:

(a) Assam Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas

(c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab Himalayas

64. Consider the following statements:

1. India is the original home of the cotton plant

2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

65. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’?

(a) A. B. Vajpayee (b) Jaswant Singh

(c) P. C. Alexander (d) Yashwant Sinha

66. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an early end?

(a) He was deposed by his Wazir

(b) He died due to a slip while climbing down steps

(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle

(d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine

67. In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest factor at:

(a) Surat (b) Pulicat

(c) Cochin (d) Cassimbazar

68. Consider the following statements:

1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.

2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on parliamentary Affairs

3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

69. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of:

(a) Agriculture

(b) Environment and Forests

(c) Commerce and Industry

(d) Rural Development

70. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?

(a) Deputy Prime Minister

(b) Former President

(c) Governor of a State within his State

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

71. Among the following cities, which one is at the highest altitude above mean sea level?

(a) Bangalore (b) Delhi

(c) Jodhpur (d) Nagpur

72. Consider the following statements:

1. Steam at 1000C and boiling water at 1000C contain same amount of heat.

2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the latent heat of vaporization of water

3. In an air-conditioner, heat is extracted from the room-air at the evaporator coils and is rejected out at the condenser coils.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3

73. Consider the following statements:

1. Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process.

2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.

3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Consider the following statements:

1. Longitude of jabalpur’s location is between those of Indore and Bhopal

2. Latitude of Aurangabad’s location is between those of Vadodara and Pune

3. Bangalore is situated more southward than Chennai.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

75. Which one among the following States is smallest in area?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat

(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu

76. Consider the following statements:

A4-wheel vehicle moving in a sharp circular path at high speed will:

1. overturn about its outer wheels.

2. overturn about its inner wheels

3. skid outwards

4. skid inwards

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

77. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of States and specifies their territories?

(a) First (b) Second

(c) Third (d) Fourth

78. In the year 2002, the President of India presented the national award for excellence in public administration and management sciences to:

(a) Kumar Manglam Birla

(b) N. R. Narayana Murthy

(c) `Rahul Bajaj

(d) Ratan Tata

79. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist ‘C’ moves such that ACB is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse

(b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle

(c) The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve

(d) This type of motion is not possible

80. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in:

(a) Bihar (b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Jharkhand (d) Orissa

81. Among the following commodities imported by India during the year 2000-01, which one was the highest in terms of Rupee value?

(a) Edible oil

(b) Fertilizers

(c) Organic and inorganic chemicals

(d) Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones

82. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:

1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.

2. Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The presence of NACI increases the rate of setting of Plaster of Paris

(b) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down its rate of setting

(c) All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts

(d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature

84. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) IPCL is India’s largest petrochemical company

(b) RIL is the largest private sector company in India

(c) MTNL is listed on NYSE

(d) BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time

85. Which amongst the following States has the highest population density as per Census-2001?

(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal

86. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:

(a) First Amendment

(b) Eighth Amendment

(c) Ninth Amendment

(d) Forty second Amendment

87. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?

(a) Rajendra Prasad

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Rajagopalachari

88. The waterfall’Victoria’ is associated with the river:

(a) Amazon (b) Missouri

(c) St. Lawrence (d) Zambeji

89. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was:

(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Vithalbhai J. Patel

(d) Mahadev Desai

90. The Kelkar proposals which were in the news recently were the:

(a) recommendations for reforms in the power sector

(b) recommendations for tax reforms

(c) guidelines for the privatization of public sector undertakings

(d) guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution, and the promotion of CNG use

91. Consider the following statements:

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution

2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961

3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Life expectancy is highest in the world in:

(a) Canada (b) Germany

(c) Japan (d) Norway

93. During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Whitley Commission?

(a) To review the fitness of India for further political reforms

(b) To report on the existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations

(c) To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India

(d) To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India

94. Octopus is:

(a) an arthropod

(b) an echinoderm

(c) a hemichordate

(d) a mollusk

95. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body:

1. Swollen lymph nodes

2. Sweating at night

3. Loss of memory

4. Loss of weight

Which of these are the symptoms of AIDS?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

96. Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the Narmada river by:

(a) Pulakesin-I (b) Pulakesin-II

(c) Vikramaditya-I (d) Vikramaditya-II

97. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?

(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122

(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124

98. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a:

(a) literature (b) musician

(c) scientist (d) sportsperson

99. Consider the following statements:

1. The maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in India is 49 percent of the paid up capital.

2. Foreign Direct Investment upto 49 percent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in India under the automatic route.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Match List-I (Cricketer) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Cricketer) (Country)

A. Barry Richards 1. England

B. Ted Dexter 2. West Indies

C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa

D. Charlie Griffith 4. New Zealand

5. Australia

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 5 1

(b) 5 1 4 2

(c) 3 1 5 2

(d) 5 2 4 1

101. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to:

(a) orientation (b) shape

(c) size (d) spin

102. Consider the following statements:

1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.

2. The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

103. Which among the following countries has the largest population?

(a) Indonesia (b) Japan

(c) Pakistan (d) Sudan

Directions: The following fifteen (15) items consist of two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

104. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.

Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.

105. Assertion (A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a negative growth of 2.17%.

Reason (R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, coffee, textiles and marine products.

106. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.

Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.

107. Assertion (A): The new EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.

Reason (R): GATT has played a significant role in the libralisation of the economy.

108. Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in a group.

Reason (R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.

109. Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.

Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.

110. Assertion (A): The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.

Reason (R): The earth is not a perfect sphere.

111. Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.

Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.

112. Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.

Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.

113. Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.

Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.

114. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative Council.

Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.

115. Assertion (A): Shah Alam Ii spent the initial years as an Emperor far away from his capital.

Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.

116. Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.

Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near the equator.

117. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title.

Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.

118. Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.

Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.

119. In December 2002, the prime Minister of India signed ‘Delhi declaration’ with the:

(a) President of Indonesia

(b) President of Russia

(c) Prime Minister of Cambodia

(d) Prime Minister of Laos

120. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?

(a) Delhi (B) Kolkata

(c) Jodhpur (D) Nagpur

121. ‘Mrichchhakatika’ an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with:

(a) the love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan

(b) the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India

(c) the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta

(d) the love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa

122. Consider the following statements:

1. Vardhamana Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchavi chief Chetaka.

2. Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty.

3. parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to Banaras.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

123. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is:

(a) 18 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr

(c) 30 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr

124. Consider the following statements:

The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is:

1. to keep the washing powder dry.

2. to maintain the alkalinity of the powder

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

125. Debenture holders of a company are its:

(a) Shareholders (b) Creditrso

(c) Debtors (d) Directors

126. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?

(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali

(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year

(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947

(d) The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the national Anthem of India

127. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?

(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275

(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355

128. ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each other at:

(a) 8.30 a.m. (b). 8.10 a.m.

(c) 7.48 a.m. (d) 7.42 a.m.

129. Consider the following statements:

In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are:

1. levied and collected by the State Government.

2. appropriated by the Union Government.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

130. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) East Timor was a British colony for four centuries

(b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975

(c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence

(d) East Timor finally declared its independence in December 2001

131. Match List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List-II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Item in the Indian Constitution) (Country from which it was derived)

A. Directive Principles Of State Policy 1. Australia

B. Fundamental Rights 2. Canada

C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3. Ireland

D.
India as a Union of States with greater 4. United Kingdom

powers to the Union 5. United States of America

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 5 4 1 2

(b) 3 5 2 1

(c) 5 4 2 1

(d) 3 5 1 2

132. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command.

(b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles

(c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km

(d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles

133. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to:

(a) John Hume

(b) Nelson Mandela

(c) Norodom Sihanouk

(d) Sadak Ogata

134. Match List-I (Name of the Person) with List-II (Associated with) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Name of the Person) (Associated with)

A. Brijmohan Lall Munjal 1. Biotechnology

B. Kiran Karnik 2. Automobile industry

C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw 3. Software industry

D. Sunil Mittal 4. Telecom industry

5.Film industry

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 1 5 2

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 2 3 1 4

(d) 2 1 5 4

135. Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men’s doubles tennis championship in the year 2002 to win the title?

(a) Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyett

(b) Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan

(c) Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge

(d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek

136. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours, 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished. The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is:

(a) Rs 2.75 (b) Rs. 3.75

(c) Rs. 9.75 (d) Rs. 12.50

137. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in India?

(a) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in the year 2001

(b) FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to complete the investigation of pending issues

(c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence

(d) As per the new dispensation, enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of foreign exchange rules

138. Consider the following statements:

1. India’s import of crude and petroleum products during the year 2001-02 accounted for about 27% of India’s total imports.

2. During the year 2001-02, India’s exports had increased by 10% as compared to the previous year.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

139. Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award?

(a) Dev Anand

(b) Lata Mangeshkar

(c) Ramanand Sagar

(d) Yash Chopra

140. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins

(b) Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin

(c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints

(d) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure

141. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?

(a) India-Sri Lanka-Pakistan-Maldives

(b) Maldives-Sri Lanka-India-Pakistan

(c) Sri Lanka-Maldives-India-Pakistan

(d) Maldives-India-Pakistan-Sri Lanka

142. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?

(a) The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature

(b) The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure

(c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases

(d) The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency

143. Consider the following statements:

1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production

2. India ranks second in the world in the export of tabacco

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

144. Which one of the following statements if correct?

(a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines

(b) The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports

(c) The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organization for enforcing civil air regulations in India

(d) It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services

145. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?

(a) Ordinary Bill

(b) Money Bill

(c) Finance Bill

(d) Constitution Amendment Bill

146. Consider the following animals of India:

1. Crocodile

2. Elephant

Which of these is/are endangered species?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

147. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?

(a) Temperate Coniferous forests

(b) Temperate Deciduous forests

(c) Tropical Monsoon forests

(d) Tropical Rain forests

148. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?

(a) 11 (b) 12

(c) 13 (d) 14

149. Consider the following statements:

1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.

2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne

3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

150. The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s dispatch of 1854 was:

(a) the creation of employment opportunities for native Indians

(b) the spread of western culture in India

(c) the promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language

(d) the introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education


ANSWERS



1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)

6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d)

16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)

21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b)

26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d)

36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39 (a) 40. (b)

41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a)

46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)

51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d)

56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)

61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a)

66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a)

71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d)

76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c)

81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a)

86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b)

91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d)

96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a)

101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d)

106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b)

111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b)

116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)

121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (b)

126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c)

131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (d)

136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (a)

141. (b) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (d)

146. (d) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)

Dear brothers there is nothing impossible for determined person

Start your direction towards civil services and win the race

Thank you

Keep it up

Yours truly,

Dr Rambilas Singh Gurjar